[Latest Questions] Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical PathD. PERT chart
Correct Answer: A
PK0-003
QUESTION 2
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the PK0-003 exam MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to PK0-003 vce a full stop due to the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance report.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
While performing a scheduled PK0-003 walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy.
Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A project team member has identified a required change to PK0-003 pdf one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they PK0-003 allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. CrashingB. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The project manager is reviewing the Pareto chart to identify if the life cycle of a deliverable is producing software bugs. Which of the following are represented in the chart? (Select TWO).
A. Number of work units affected by the bug
B. Percentage of bug types occurring
C. Software bug counts
D. Root cause of bug occurrence
E. Affect of the bug occurrence
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-883 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Oracle

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QUESTION 1
Consider the 1Z0-883 dumps query:
Mysql> SET @run = 15;
Mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE run=@run AND objective=’7.1′
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
1Z0-883
The iteminformation table has the following indexes;
Mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM iteminformation:
1Z0-883
This query is run several times in an application with different values in the 1Z0-883 exam WHERE clause in a growing data set.
What is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Consider typical High Availability (HA) solutions that 1Z0-883 do not use shared storage. Which three HA solutions do not use shared storage?
A. Mysql Replication
B. Distributed Replicated Block Device (DRBD) and Mysql
C. Windows Cluster and Mysql
D. Solaris Cluster and Mysql
E. Mysql NDB Cluster
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are characteristic of the MEMORY storage engine?
A. Each table is represented on disk as an.frm file.
B. Each table has a corresponding.MYI and .MYD file.
C. It can support foreign keys.
D. It cannot contain text or BLOB columns.
E. Table contents are not saved if the server is restarted.
F. It can support transactions
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
A Mysql Server has been running an existing application successfully for six months.
The my.cnf is adjusted to 1Z0-883 vce contain the following additional configuration:
[mysqld]
Default-authentication-plugin=sha256_password
The Mysql Server is restarted without error.
What effect will the new configuration have in existing accounts?
A. They will have their passwords updated on start-up to sha256_password format.
B. They will have to change their password the next time they login to the server.
C. They are not affected by this configuration change.
D. They all connect via the secure sha256_password algorithm without any configuration change.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that 1Z0-883 pdf can properly encode your data.
Which three should influence your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS
C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size
Correct Answer: CDE

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-483 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

Latest and most accurate Microsoft 070-483 dumps exam practice material and real exam questions ans answers http://www.passitdump.com/70-483.html Microsoft Windows Store apps is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Microsoft Microsoft Windows Store apps Programming in C# training materials.

QUESTION 1
You are developing an application by using C#.
The application includes an object that performs a long running process.
You need to 070-483 ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.
Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. ReRegisterForFinalize()
B. SuppressFinalize()
C. Collect()
D. WaitForFullGCApproach()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are creating a class named Employee. The class exposes a string property named EmployeeType. The following code segment defines the Employee class. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
The EmployeeType property value must be accessed and modified only by code within the Employee class or within a class derived from the Employee class.
You need to ensure that the implementation of the EmployeeType property meets the requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer represents part of the complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: protected get;
B. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: private set;
C. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: public string EmployeeType
D. Replace line 05 with the following code segment: private get;
E. Replace line 03 with the following code segment: protected string EmployeeType
F. Replace line 06 with the following code segment: protected set;
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
You are implementing a method named Calculate that 070-483 performs conversions between value types and reference types. The following code segment implements the method. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483
You need to ensure that the application does not throw exceptions on invalid conversions.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. int balance = (int) (float)amountRef;
B. int balance = (int)amountRef;
C. int balance = amountRef;
D. int balance = (int) (double) amountRef;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are creating a console application by using C#.
You need to access the application assembly.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Assembly.GetAssembly(this);
B. this.GetType();
C. Assembly.Load();
D. Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly();
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Task.Run() method to launch a long-running data processing operation. The 070-483 data processing operation often fails in times of heavy network congestion.
If the data processing operation fails, a second operation must clean up any results of the first operation.
You need to ensure that the second operation is invoked only if the data processing operation throws an unhandled exception.
What should you do?
A. Create a TaskCompletionSource object and call the TrySetException() method of the object.
B. Create a task by calling the Task.ContinueWith() method.
C. Examine the Task.Status property immediately after the call to the Task.Run() method.
D. Create a task inside the existing Task.Run() method by using the AttachedToParent option.
Correct Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Latest HP HP0-Y50 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
A network architect is planning a complete access layer and core upgrade for customer’s campus LAN. The campus has four large buildings, each requiring between 1000 and 3000 edge ports. Which factor will play a primary role in determining whether the network architect needs to plan a two-tier or three-tier topology for the campus LAN?
A. The number of fiber links between each building and the building where the core switches reside
B. Whether the customer requires a wireless solution
C. The high number of edge ports that the solution requires
D. Whether the customer can afford core switches that support intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
hp0-y50
The exhibit shows a proposed design for a data center network infrastructure. The exhibit shows two racks for simplicity. The data center will actually include more racks.
The customer has these key requirements:
The customer can scale any application and easily install new hardware that supports that application
The network supports vMotion for live migration of virtual machine (VMs)
How should the network architect change the proposed design to meet the customer requirements?
A. Replace the rack servers with blade enclosures
B. Add more links between the servers and the access layer
C. Remove routing from the access layer and extend VLANs to multiple racks
D. Add a distribution layer between the access layer and the core
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A network architect is explaining the differences between deploying two switches in an HP Intelligent Resiliency Framework (IRF) virtual switch and deploying two switches that implement standard Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). Which statement correctly describes an advantage of IRF?
A. IRF failover occurs in 3 to 4 seconds, whereas VRPF failover occurs in 10 or more seconds
B. Unlike VRRP, which requires as least two addresses to be listed. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scopes list a single IP address for the default gateway
C. The IRF virtual switch runs a separate routing in each member, which enhances the redundancy and reliability of the overall solution
D. Multiple IRF members can actively route traffic for the same subnet and use the same IP address and routing control plane
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which data center characteristics should specifically make the architect consider switches that support Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) or Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links (TRILL)?
A. The customer requires redundancy and resiliency for the two data center routing switches
B. The customer requires high-speed routing between front-end servers and database servers in different subnets
C. The virtualized data center supports several thousand virtual machines (VMs) with a two-tier networking infrastructure topology
D. The data center requires many redundant links and must scale the tens of thousands of virtual (VMs)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A customer wants a simple solution for deploying virtual services at a branch. Which devices support modules running a VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Select two)
A. HP 2920 Switch SeriesB. HP MSR30 Router Series
C. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
D. HP 7500 Switch Series
E. HP VSR1000 Virtual Services Routers
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-487 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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The existing sources of flight information and the mechanism of exchange are listed below.
Blue Yonder Airlines provides flight information in an XML file.
Consolidated Messenger provides flight information in a Microsoft http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html Access database that is uploaded every 12 hours to the service using SFTP. The company uses port 22 for SFTP.
Margie’s Travel provides and consumes flight information using serialized ADO.NET DataSets. Data is periodically synced between the service and Margie’s Travel.
Trey Research provides data from multiple sources serialized in proprietary binary formats. The data must be read by using .NET assemblies provided by Trey Research. The assemblies use a common set of dependencies. The current version of the Trey Research assemblies is 1.2.0.0. All assemblies provided by Trey Research are 070-487 signed with a key pair contained in a file named Trey.snk, which Trey Research also supplies.
The application specification requires that any third-party assemblies must have strong names.

QUESTION 1
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller that 070-487 returns the total number of seats for each airline.
You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required data.
Which code segment should you use?
A.
070-487
B.
070-487
C.
070-487
D.
070-487
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to 070-487 load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
Which should you use?
A. SQL Server Data Transformation Services (DTS)
B. EntityTransaction and EntityCommand
C. Office Open XML
D. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to load flight information provided by Consolidated Messenger.
What should you use?
A. Office Open XML
B. COM interop
C. OleDbConnection and OleDbDataReader
D. EntityConnection and EntityDataReader
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for 070-487 historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use the WasLate property as the row key.
B. Use the Airline property as the row key.
C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key
D. Use the Arrival property as the row key.
E. Use the Airline property as the partition key.
F. Use the Flight property as the row key.
Correct Answer: BF

You are developing a flight information consolidation service. The service retrieves flight information 070-487 from a number of sources and combines them into a single data set. The consolidated flight information is stored in a SQL Server database. Customers can query and retrieve the data by using a REST API provided by the service.

Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/70-487.html The service also offers access to historical flight information. The historical flight information can be filtered and queried in an ad hoc manner.
The service runs on a Windows Azure Web Role. SSL is not used.

[Latest Questions] Latest CWNP CWNA-106 PDF Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
You are implementing a VHT-capable AP. Which one of the following channels is available in the 802.11ac amendment to the 802.11-2012 standard, which was not available in the standard before this amendment?
A. 153
B. 144
C. 161
D. 56
E. 48
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 2
You are selecting antennas for a WLAN operating in the 5 GHz frequency band. What specifications should be evaluated for an antenna before it is implemented in this WLAN system? (Choose 3)
A. 802.11ad compatibility
B. TPC support
C. Impedance in Ohms
D. Elevation Beamwidth
E. Return Loss Rating
F. Operating Frequencies
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
What is the intended use for the CWNA-106 WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A concrete wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the concrete wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location. If an extension cable is added to move the antenna, what are the likely results?A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna’s azimuth beamwidth will decrease.
D. The size of the Fresnel zone will increase.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred. What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B
CWNA-106
QUESTION 6
What factors are taken into account when calculating the CWNA-106 Link Budget of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver’s antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency and distance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which unit of measurement is an absolute unit that is used to quantify power levels on a linear scale?
A. dBm
B. W
C. dB
D. mW
E. VSWR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An 802.11 WLAN transmitter that emits a 50 mW signal is connected to CWNA-106 a cable with 3 dB of loss. The cable is connected to an antenna with 16 dBi of gain.
What is the EIRP power output?A. 10 mW
B. 25 mW
C. 50 mW
D. 250 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: E

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TB0-123 Dumps Tibco Exam Practice Questions Online Free Download

Posted by admin on in Tibco

Hottest And Latest Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

QUESTION NO: 1
For a Java class specified in an XML to Tibco TB0-123 dumps Java Activity, which two characteristics are required? (Choose two.)
Click here to learn more: http://www.passitdump.com/TB0-123.html Best Tibco TB0-123 Dumps Exam Study Guide.
A. It must be serializable.
B. It must implement Runnable Interface.
C. It must have a public default constructor.
D. It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Click on the Exhibit button.
TB0-123
Which activity will this execution transfer to TB0-123 if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?
A. IncomingOrder
B. End
C. RespondNotAvailable
D. CatchInventory
E. CatchAllOthers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which setting should you increase if a process engine runs out of memory during testing?
A. Thread Count
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Limit
D. Maximum Heap Size
E. Activation Limit
F. Flow Limit
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A BusinessWorks process must be deployed that receives input from an EMS topic and publishes data to an EMS queue. The topic and queue names must contain a token used for TB0-123 pdf migrating between testing and production environments. The system administrator must be able to purge the topic and queue from within the TIBCO Administrator. Which two steps should be taken to create a TIBCO Administrator domain that meets these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The EMS server should be added to the domain using the Domain Utility.
B. Topics and queues should be configured as global.
C. Topics and queues should be created as failsafe.
D. A global variable should be used for migrating between environments.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5
You wish to detect changes to a file and start processes when these changes occur. Which ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks activity should you use?
A. File Monitor
B. Read File
C. File Poller
D. List New File
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
When using the Tester, what is the correct way to TB0-123 specify a FlowLimit of 10?
A. addFlowLimit10 to the bwengine.xml file
B. remotely connect the designer to the deployed engine with FlowLimit set to 10
C. click on the Advanced tab of the Tester and enter a value of 10
D. reference a text file with the entry FlowLimit.*=10 from the Advanced tab of the Tester
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
Process A has a Timer. Process B has a JMS Queue Receiver. Process C has a JMS Topic Subscriber. These processes are to be deployed on two machines and configured to operate in fault-tolerant and load-balanced mode. Which two steps should you take to TB0-123 vce achieve this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. bundle the Timer and the JMS Queue Receiver in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
B. bundle the JMS Topic Subscriber and Timer in one EAR file and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
C. put the JMS Queue Receiver in its own EAR and deploy it twice
D. bundle the two JMS-based starters in one EAR file and deploy it twice
E. put the Timer in its own EAR and deploy it in fault-tolerant mode
F. put the JMS Topic Subscriber in its own EAR file and deploy it twice
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 8
How can a custom database driver be added to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A. by using the TIBCO Configuration Tool
B. by using traDBConfig
C. by using the TIBCO Administrator GUI
D. by using the Domain Utility CLI
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 9
You wish to deploy a pair of engines that share states between jobs via Shared Variables. Which statement is true about this configuration?
A. States cannot be shared across engines, only across jobs within one engine.
B. Sharing states is achieved via TCP communication.
C. A database is required.
D. A shared location in the filesystem is sufficient.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
Which setting is used to specify that TB0-123 exam a process instance loaded into memory must remain there until it completes?
A. Flow Limit
B. Max Jobs
C. Step Count
D. Activation Limit
E. Thread Count
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11
Which utility should you use to delete all deployed process files from a domain before using it for testing?
A. Domain Utility
B. Tester
C. AppManage
D. Migration
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
A process archive with three JMS services and MaxJobs=5 is deployed. All other values are defaults. Each of the three services consists of four activities, one being a very CPU-intensive mapping activity. For performance issues, how many threads are provisioned to execute the mapping activity?
A. 3
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: B

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Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: 220-801
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Version: Demo
220-801
QUESTION 1
A desktop computer is exhibiting artifacts on the screen after prolonged use. A technician has already updated the video drivers and ran all operating system updates.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this?
A. Defective cabling
B. Outdated system BIOS
C. Incorrect GPU firmware
D. Overheating GPU
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to 220-801 pdf be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA
D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
A user wants to store a personal video to view at a later time. Which of the following types of media is the LEAST expensive with a maximum capacity of 750MB?
A. USB drive
B. DVD-R
C. Blu-Ray
D. CD-R
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A user is asking for recommendations on 220-801 dumps building a PC that will primarily be used for gaming. Which of the following should the technician recommend? (Select TWO).
A. 7.1 sound card
B. CAD video card
C. Virtualization support
D. Thunderbolt expansion cards
E. RAID controller
F. High-end video card
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the 220-801 power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?A. Low voltage power supply
B. Failing magnetic hard drive
C. Corrupted Solid State Drive
D. Overheated RAM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Ann, a business traveler, calls her company’s help desk reporting that she cannot connect to the hotel’s Internet. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step the 220-801 vce help desk technician should advise?
A. Verify WiFi is enabled
B. Check the proxy settings
C. Contact the hotel’s front desk
D. Boot into Safe Mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A computer will not load Windows and displays the 220-801 exam error message “Operating system not found”. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. bootrec
B. diskpart
C. format
D. sfc
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Polycom 1K0-001 PDF Exam Practice Questions And Youtube Free Updated

Posted by admin on in Polycom

Already pass. Valid dump. Good site. I think these guys have the latest Polycom 1K0-001 pdf dump. I failed my exam with other dumps. I remember the new questions. They are in this dump! Studied every question and answers. The answers are accurate. In case you have issues in finding or using any product be it related to Polycom 1K0-001 Exam or other Polycom Others certifications, our friendly support staff will assist you promptly whenever you contact us.

Vendor: Polycom
Exam Code: 1K0-001
Exam Name: Polycom Certified Videoconferencing Engineer (PCVE)
Version: Demo

1K0-001

QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the 1K0-001 Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to 1K0-001 the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available 1K0-001 using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to 1K0-001 schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the 1K0-001 CMA but when you log in with your administrator account you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your customer has an issue with their Virtualization Manager (DMA) and they contact Polycom Global Services for support, Select the option which best describes 1K0-001 what they will need to supply PGS:
A. System Log Files plus any additional files specifically requested
B. Troubleshooting Utilities plus any additional files specifically requested
C. System Log Files
D. Troubleshooting Utilities
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Ethernet encapsulates data into a:
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment
D. Datagram
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How is Personal Conference Manager initiated when in a call hosted on an RMX?
A. Click on the PCM button
B. Launch it from RMX Manager
C. From your computer
D. Pressing ## on the remote control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Any device which does not have an IP subnet configured in a network site appears where in the 1K0-001 Virtualization Manager (DMA) site topology?
A. Default Site
B. Internet/VPN
C. Nowhere
D. Primary Site
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer would like to configure H.323 on their RSS; select the 1K0-001 two options which they can configure:
A. Enable H.323
B. Neighbored gatekeeper
C. Primary gatekeeper
D. Alternate gatekeeper
Correct Answer: CD

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How To Pass Oracle 1z0-067 Dumps Exam Test With Best Study Guide

Posted by admin on in Oracle

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-067 dumps
Exam Name: Upgrade Oracle9i/10g/11g OCA OR OCP to Oracle Database 12c OCP
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.
B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.
C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.
D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.
E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.
Correct Answer: CD

1z0-067

QUESTION 2
A complete database backup to 1z0-067 pdf media is taken for your database every day. Which three actions would you take to improve backup performance?
A. Set the backup_tape_io_slaves parameter to true.
B. Set the dbwr_io_slaves parameter to a nonzero value if synchronous I/O is in use.
C. Configure large pool if not already done.
D. Remove the rate parameter, if specified, in the allocate channel command.
E. Always use RMAN compression for tape backups rather than the compression provided by media manager.
F. Always use synchronous I/O for the database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3
For which three pieces of information can you use the RMAN list command?
A. stored scripts in the recovery catalog
B. available archived redo log files
C. backup sets and image copies that are obsolete
D. backups of tablespaces
E. backups that are marked obsolete according to the current retention policy
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 4
You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 1z0-067 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?
A. Database Replay
B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three 1z0-067 statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
Because of logical corruption of data in a table, you want to recover the table from an RMAN backup to a specified point in time.
Examine the 1z0-067 vce steps to recover this table from an RMAN backup:
1.Determine which backup contains the table that needs to be recovered.
2.Issue the recover table RMAN command with an auxiliary destination defined and the point in time specified.
3.Import the Data Pump export dump file into the auxiliary instance.
4.Create a Data Pump export dump file that contains the recovered table on a target database.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 1, 4, 3, 2
D. 1, 2, 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Examine the command: SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL;
In which two scenarios is this 1z0-067 command required?
A. The current online redo log file is missing.
B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.
C. All the control files are missing.
D. The database backup is older than the control file backup.
E. All the data files are missing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two are prerequisites for 1z0-067 setting up Flashback Data Archive?
A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.
B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.
C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.
D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.
E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.
F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 9
The environmental variable oracle_Base is set to /u01/app/oracle and oracle_home is set to /u01/app/oracle/product/12.1.0/db 1.
You want to check the diagnostic files created as part of the 1z0-067 exam Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR). Examine the initialization parameters set in your database.
NAMETYPEVALUE
audit_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/admin/eml2rep/adump
background_dump_deststring
core_dump_deststring
db_create_file_deststring
db_recovery_file_deststring/u01/app/oracle/fast_recovery_area diagnostic_deststring
What is the location of the ADR base?
A. It is set to/u01/app/oracle/product:/12.1.0/db_1/log.
B. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/admin/enl2r&p/adump.
C. It is set to /u01/app/oracle.
D. It is set to /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) hr pdb1 from the multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 and import it into the cdb2 CDB as the emp_pdb1 PDB.
Examine the 1z0-067 list of possible steps required to perform the task:
1.Create a PDB named emp_pdb1.
2.Export the hr_pdb1 PDB by using the full clause.
3.Open the emp_pdb1 PDB.
4.Mount the emp_pdb1 PDB.
5.Synchronize the emp_pdb1 PDB in restricted mode.
6.Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.
7.Create a Data Pump directory in the emp_pdb1 PDB.
8.Import data into emp_pdb1 with the full and remap clauses. 9.Create the same tablespaces in emp_pdb1
as in hr_pdb1 for new local user objects.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8
D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8
Correct Answer: C

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