[Latest Questions] 100% Pass With Best Cisco 300-115 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Shared

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Prepare for Cisco 300-115 exam with the best Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps real exam practice questions and answers shared from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo free update. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.leads4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training materials and study guides free try, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit,
300-115 dumps
which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise? 300-115 dumps
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

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[Latest Questions] Best Useful Cisco 100-105 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Demo Free Shared

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Useful Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers free update from lead4pass. Get the best and most Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf practice files and vce youtube demo free shared at lead4pass. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND1 https://www.leads4pass.com/100-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
100-105 dumps Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated? 100-105 dumps
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which statements accurately describe CDP? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 300-170 Dumps PDF Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

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Pass the Cisco 300-170 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt with the latest Cisco 300-170 dumps exam practice questions PDF and practice exam. http://www.passitdump.com/300-170.html Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-170 test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0x2002 and the next four bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address
B. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48 IPv6 address.
D. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16 IPv6 address.
E. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64 IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: AC
300-170
QUESTION 3                               300-170
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?   300-170
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?
A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer implemented Cisco EVN. Which feature implements shared services support?
A. edge interfacing
B. tunnel feedback
C. route replication
D. route redistribution
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which command instruct a PPPoE client to obtain its IP address from the PPPoe server?
A. Interface dialer
B. ip address negotiated
C. pppoe enable
D. Ip address DHCP
E. Ip address dynamic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 600-460 Exam Study Materials Free Try

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The latest Cisco 600-460 exam Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist products is considered a very important qualification, and the 600-460 exam professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A
600-460 exam
QUESTION 3                 600-460 exam
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of 600-460 exam missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDSDDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-270 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

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QUESTION 1
Which FirePOWER services capability supports seamless processing after an adaptive security appliance stateful failover event?
A. midsession pickup
B. TCP intercept
C. SFR stateful failover
D. FireSIGHT central policy distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum Cisco ASA software version that is required to support FirePOWER services?
A. 9.1.2
B. 8.6
C. 9.2.2
D. 9.4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which recommendation should be made to increase scalability, performance, and resiliency?
A. Create a Cisco ASA failover pair.
B. Upgrade the current Cisco ASA
C. Upgrade from the FirePOWER software module to the hardware module
D. Deploy Cisco ASA clustering.
Correct Answer: D
700-270 exam
QUESTION 4             700-270 exam
Which application is required to support adding user information from Microsoft Active Directory to FirePOWER events?
A. Cisco ASA Identity Firewall
B. Microsoft Active Directory Agent
C. Cisco Directory Agent
D. Sourcefire User Agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
With which hardware option must Cisco ASA models below the 5585-X be sold to support FirePOWER services?
A. SSP module
B. FireSIGHT Management Center
C. SSD
D. FirePOWER services bundle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which enhancement is added to URL filtering that is performed by the FirePOWER services module?
A. categories
B. reputation scores
C. regular expressions
D. IP address filters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three options are important when positioning a next-generation firewall solution? (Choose three.)
A. performance
B. resistance to evasion
C. current install base
D. interoperability
E. stability
F. nonproprietary
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
How is traffic forwarded from the Cisco ASA to the FirePOWER services module for analysis? 700-270 exam
A. The SFR is transparent and automatically sees all traffic.
B. A service policy redirects traffic from the Cisco ASA packet-processing path to the SFR
C. The SFR has a dedicated data interface
D. The SFR is a standalone appliance that is inserted inline in the data path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
NGIPS rulesets are configured using which management application?
A. FireSIGHT Management Center
B. Cisco IDM
C. Cisco IME
D. Cisco ASDM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
In a stateful firewall application, inspection occurs at which layer of the OSI model?
A. 7
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 Exam Study Materials Free Try

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Latest and most accurate Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 exam pracice material and real exam study guide. All the 4A0-107 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. High quality Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 certifications Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-107 exam quality of Service training materials.

Vendor: Alcatel-Lucent
Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Quality of Service
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?
A. A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.
B. A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.
C. A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.
D. A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).
E. A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.
B. The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.
C. The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.
D. To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.
E. DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.
Correct Answer: ABD
4A0-107
QUESTION 3
Which of the following can be used as classifiers of customer traffic? (Choose three)
A. DSCP value
B. 802.1p value
C. IP DF bit
D. TCP/UDP port numbers
E. HTML version number
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4
How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options? 4A0-107
A. 8
B. 16
C. 6
D. 4
E. 3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. The EXP bits in the MPLS header.
B. The packet’s source and destination IP addresses.
C. The packet’s DSCP bits.
D. The dot1p bits in the frame header.
E. The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)
A. Microflow reservations using RSVP
B. DSCP to EXP translation
C. Traffic classification
D. Automatic profiling and policy configuration
E. Buffer memory management
F. Traffic scheduling
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are characteristics of DSCP? (Choose two)
A. DSCP is part of the Layer 3 header.
B. DSCP is a 6-bit field.
C. DSCP specifies eight different priorities.
D. DSCP specifies four precedence levels.
E. DSCP is part of the Layer 2 header
F. DSCP specifies 128 different per-hop behaviors.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
What is an SLA? (Choose two)  4A0-107
A. An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider’s network.
B. An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider’s network.
C. An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider’s network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.
D. An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider’s network.
E. An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider’s network.
Correct Answer: BD

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-488 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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QUESTION 1
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?  http://www.passitdump.com/70-488.html 070-488 Dumps Exam
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: The sites have been deleted.They need to be restored.A and B are wrong because modifying the Recycle Bin settings after the sites are deleted will have no effect on the deleted sites.

070-488

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the Microsoft 070-488 dumps courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. / The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 3
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.  070-488 dumps
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a     070-488 dumps
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

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[Latest Questions] Latest Oracle 1Z0-052 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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The best and most updated Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps exam training materials, we also want you to be able to access them easily, whenever you want. Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps exam training material in PDF format, http://www.passitdump.com/1Z0-052.html which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Answer: B,C

Question No : 2
You want to check the details of few errors that Oracle 1Z0-052 dumps users have reported. You search for the alert log file and execute few commands to find the location of the alert log file.
View the Exhibit and check the commands executed.
1Z0-052
What is the location of the alert_orcl.log file?
A. ORACLE_HOME/dbs
B. ORACEL_HOME/rdbms
C. /u01/app/oracle/admin/orcl/adump
D. /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area
E. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/alert
F. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/trace
Answer: F

Question No : 3
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle 1Z0-052 dumps Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

Question No : 4
See the Exhibit:
1Z0-052
Which statements are true regarding the USERS tablespace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A bitmap is used to record free extents
B. Free extents information is managed within the tablespace
C. Free extents information is managed in the SYSAUX tablespace
D. The data dictionary tables are updated when extents are allocated or deallocated
Answer: A,B

Question No : 5
You executed the following command to create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)
A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 6
In which of the scenario will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Answer: B,E

Question No : 7
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to 1Z0-052 dumps accomplish the task in random order:
1. Shut down the instance.
2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
5. Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Answer: C

Question No : 8
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Answer: A

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 70-981 VCE Exam Study Materials Free Try

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The hottest and latest Microsoft 70-981 vce exam practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. All the 70-981 vce exam questions and answers http://www.passitdump.com/70-981.html are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass Microsoft 70-981 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
You need to implement the alert notifications. The solution must meet the technical requirements. A Lync Server administrator enables an account named ADATUM\IMUser for Microsoft 70-981 vce Unified Communications. What should you do next?
A. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install the Lync Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
B. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account Install the Exchange Server Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
C. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account. Install Microsoft Visual C++ 2008 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
D. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install Unified Communications Managed API 3.0 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
Correct Answer: D
70-981
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend which Orchestrator integration packs must be deployed to reduce the amount of development effort required to deploy an instance of VMT1.
Which Orchestrator integration packs should you recommend?
A. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager
B. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
C. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Operations Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Service Manager
D. The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager and the System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Operations Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to remediate the 70-981 dumps Exchange Server 2010 service failures. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a service request workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
B. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
C. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
D. Create a service request workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution to meet the monitoring requirements for App2.
What should you include in the recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. An aggregate rollup monitor
B. A distributed application
C. A dependency rollup monitor
D. Service monitors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to manage the changes made to the custom rules. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the 70-981 pdf recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Export the Operations Manager operational database.
B. Back up the Operations Manager folder.
C. Back up the Operations Manager data warehouse database.
D. Export the custom management packs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the sales department managers can create instances of App1 in Cloud1.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A subscription in App Controller and a task in Service Manager
B. A dashboard in Operations Manager and a distributed application
C. A task in Operations Manager and a distributed application
D. A service offering in Service Manager and a runbook in Orchestrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You virtualize all of the SharePoint servers and add them to the Corporate private cloud.
You need to prepare the infrastructure for the planned monitoring of the SharePoint servers.
Which two actions should you perform after NWT-SCOM01 is deployed and NWT-VMM01 is upgraded? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Import the System Center Management Pack for SharePoint Server 2013 to NWT-SCOM01.
B. Create a new distributed application on NWT-SCOM01.
C. Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the SharePoint virtual servers.
D. Import the System Center Management Pack for SharePoint Server 2013 to NWT-VMM01.
E. Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the visualization hosts.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution to prepare the 70-981 exam infrastructure for the planned monitoring implementation.
Which three actions should you recommend performing after NWT-SCOM01 is deployed and NWT-VMM01 is upgraded? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On NWT-VMM01, configure integration with Operations Manager.
B. On NWT-SCOM01, import all of the management packs that start with Microsoft.SystemCenter.VirtualMachineManager.Storage.
C. On NWT-VMM01, configure integration with WSUS.
D. On NWT-SCOM01, install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent and the Virtual Machine Manager console.
E. On NWT-VMM01, install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent and the Operations Manager console.
Correct Answer: ABE

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[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 070-463 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

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Question No : 1
You install a SQL Server 2012 database engine instance on a production server. A month later, you install SQL Server 2012 Integration Services (SSIS). http://www.passitdump.com/70-463.html Latest Microsoft 070-463 dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try
You must develop an SSIS project and deploy it to the server by using the Project Deployment model.
Operations Log records that are outside the configured retention period must be cleaned automatically.
You need to create the SSIS catalog on the production server.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable XP Command Shell.
B. Enable CLR Integration.
C. Enable OLE Automation.
D. Start the SQL Server Browser service.
E. Enable Cross Database Ownership Chaining
F. Start the SQL Server Agent service
G. Enable Ad Hoc Remote Queries.
Answer: B,F

Question No : 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that 070-463 dumps accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ).
You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time.
What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
070-463
Answer:
070-463
Question No : 3
A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package on a computer is failing periodically in production. The package was created less than one year ago and was deployed to the SSIS catalog.
Sometimes the package is started on a SQL Agent schedule; sometimes the package is started manually by an SSIS developer by using the 070-463 pdf Object Explorer in SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to identify the authenticated user responsible for starting the package each time it failed in the past.
Where can you find this information?
A. the SQL Server Log
B. the SSISDB.[catalog].[executions] view
C. the SSISDB.[catalog].[event_messages] view
D. the SQL Agent Job History
E. the SQL Agent Error Log
Answer: B

Question No : 4
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closestmatching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the
reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the 070-463 vce Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Answer: B

Question No : 5
You are developing a project that contains multiple SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages. The packages will be deployed to the SSIS catalog. One of the steps in each package accesses an FTP site to download sales transaction data.
You create project parameters to store the username and password that are used to access the FTP site.
You need to ensure that the username and password values are encrypted when they are deployed.
What should you do?
A. Set the Sensitive property of the parameters to True.
B. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package to EncryptSensitiveWithUserKey.
C. Change the parameters to package parameters.
D. Change the project to the Legacy Deployment model.
Answer: A

Question No : 6
You are designing a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure. The data warehouse currently includes the dimUser and dimDistrict dimension tables and the 070-463 exam factSales fact table. The dimUser table contains records for each user permitted to run reports against the warehouse; and the dimDistrict table contains information about sales districts.
The system is accessed by users from certain districts, as well as by area supervisors and users from the corporate headquarters.
You need to design a table structure to ensure that certain users can see sales data for only certain districts. Some users must be permitted to see sales data from multiple districts.
What should you do?
A. Add a district column to the dimUser table.
B. Partition the factSales table on the district column.
C. Create a userDistrict table that contains primary key columns from the dimUser and dimDistrict tables.
D. For each district, create a view of the factSales table that includes a WHERE clause for the district.
Answer: C

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