[Latest Questions] Useful Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Exam Code: 70-734
Total Questions: 46 Q&As

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New Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to change the edition of the image to Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. Thes solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Upgrade Assistant.
B. Perform offline maintenance of the image by using Dism.
C. Run Windows Anytime Upgrade.
D. Deploy the image to a client computer, perform an in-place upgrade, and then capture an image of the computer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Windows 10 on several computers by using images. The computers will contain a Push Button Reset (PBR).
You need to ensure that the computer configuration supports PBR.
Which computer configurations must be available?
A. a recovery image file
B. a DVD drive that contains the installation media
C. a full system backup
D. a recovery partition
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have a technician computer that has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You have a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
You plan to optimize the Windows PE image by removing unnecessary components from the image.
You need to enable profiling for the image.
Which package should you add to the base Windows PE image before you can enable profiling?
A. winpe-wmi.cab
B. winpe-setup.cab
C. winpe-scripting.cab
D. winpe-mdac.cab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a server that has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) has an image group that contains several Windows images.
You need to ensure that the company name and the support phone number of the OEM are configured when the image is deployed to a computer.
Which file should you modify?
A. Unattend.xml
B. Sysprep.inf
C. Startnet.cmd
D. Winpeshi.ini
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have several reference computers. The computers are configured to always start from a local hard disk drive.
70-734 dumps You plan to capture the reference computers.
On each reference computer, you connect a USB flash drive (UFD) that contains an installation of Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the reference computers start automatically by using Windows PE from the UFD.
What should you do?
A. From the System Properties, modify the Startup and Recovery settings.
B. From the System Configuration utility, modify the Boot settings.
C. Run bdcedit.exe and modify the boot configuration data (BCD) store.
D. From the BIOS options, modify the startup order.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You plan to install operating systems on 500 client computers by using the sources files located in a network share.
You need to identify which operating system must be installed on the computer that hosts the share. The solution must ensure that 25 computers can correct concurrently to the share.
Which two possible operating systems achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
B. Windows 10 Pro
C. Windows 7 Ultimate
D. Windows 8 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2012 Standard
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
You work for an OEM system builder.
You deploy Windows to a client computer that has a 64 GB-Solid State Drive (SSD) by using a configuration set from a USB key.
You need to reduce the size of the Windows installation as much as possible.
Which folder should you remove from the installation?
A. %WINDIR%\Branding
B. %WINDIR%\Addins
C. %WINDIR%\Configsetroot
D. %WINDIR%\Panther
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You need to prepare a hard disk for a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (EUFI)-based computer.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)
A. Format the Windows partition by using NTFS.
B. Format the Windows partition by using FAT32.
C. Create an EFI partition.
D. Convert the hard disk to a GPT disk.
E. Mark the system partition as active.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 9
You purchase a System Builder pack for Windows 10 Pro and plan to perform an installation by using a Personal Use License.
What should you do first to receive support for the installation?
A. change the license
B. contact a Microsoft Authorized Distributor
C. contact Microsoft
D. contact the OEM system builder
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) image by using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Set-Edition
B. /Add-Package
C. /Add-Driver
D. /Enable-Feature
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You deploy a Windows image to a reference computer.
You sign in to the reference computer by using the built-in administrator account and you modify the user environment.
You need to deploy the image to several client computers. The image must contain the profile of the built-in administrator account as the default profile.
Which two actions should you perform before you capture the image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run sysprep.exe/generalize /unattend:unattend.xml.
B. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Setup\UserData settings.
C. Run sysprep.exe /generalize /mode:vm.
D. Run sysprep.exe / audit /unattend:unattend.xml.
E. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Shell_setup settings.
F. Run dism.exe /apply-unattend:unattend.xml.
G. Run dism.exe /image.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
You start a client computer by using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE). You load a default version of Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) that was created by using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
You have a file server that contains a shared folder. The folder contains an image of Windows. The folder is shared to the local Users group only.
The computer has a system partition and a Windows partition.
You need to apply a reference installation from a network share.
Which command should you run before applying the image?
A. net.exe
B. mshta.exe
C. drvinst.exe
D. wpeinit.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
While resting the deployment of the Windows PE image, you discover that the Windows PE installation becomes unresponsive. 70-734 dumps You discover that you are exceeding the memory capacity of the RAM disk.
You need to increase the memory capacity of the RAM disk used by the Windows PE image.
You mount the Windows PE image.
Which command should you run next?
A. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /scratchdir:c:c\images\wpe
B. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /set-scratchspace:256
C. dism /online / set-scratchspace:256
D. dism /cleanup-wim
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A technician applies an image of Windows to a client computer.
The technician reports that several errors occurred during the Windows Welcome phase of the setup.
You need to view the errors that occurred during Windows Welcome.
Which file should you view?
A. Setupapi.dev.log
B. Cbs_unattend.log
C. Setupapi.offline.log
D. Setupact.log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You have a Windows image named Image1.wim.
You plan to deploy Image1.win to computers that have built-in video cameras. The driver for the cameras in missing from Image1.wim.
You obtain a driver package from the manufacturer of the cameras. You store the driver package and the driver.inf setup information file C:\Driver.
You mount Image1.wim to C:\Mount.
You need to inject the driver into the image.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options to complete the command.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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[Latest Questions] New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions Update Youtube Free Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-165
Total Questions: 187 Q&As

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300-165 dumps

Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two issues explain why a packet is not being routed as desired in a policy-based routing configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a higher metric than the default next hop.
B. The route map is not applied to the egress interface.
C. The next hop that is configured in the route map is not in the global routing table.
D. The route map is not applied to the ingress interface.
E. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a lower metric than the default next hop.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When you configure LISP, which two components must be configured at the site edge? (Choose two.)
A. AED
B. ELAN
C. ITR
D. EOBC
E. ETR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which command should you ran to distribute NTP configuration changes by using Cisco Fabric Services?
A. ntp distribute
B. ntp server 1.2.3.4
C. ntp commit
D. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the datacenter. Which two options you can use to resolve the issue? 300-165 dumps (Choose two)
A. On the OTV VDC, configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevent the virtual FHRP MAC address forwarded on the overlay
B. On the OTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded
C. Configure the same FHRP priority on all the OTV edge devices in both sites
D. Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range
E. On the OTV edge devices, configure an IP ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?
A. router ospf
B. global configuration
C. vPC
D. interface
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two Nexus family line cards allow the configuration of features regarding LISP, OTV and MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. B1
B. F3
C. F2
D. F1
E. M2
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
B. manually by using global configuration mode
C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch. Port security is configured to use sticky learning. Where are the secured MAC addresses stored?
A. the running configuration
B. the startup configuration
C. NVRAM
D. RAM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
300-165 dumps
Ethernet interface 1/5 on Cisco Nexus 5548 is connected to Cisco UCS C220 rack server. What is the status of Ethernet 1/5 interface for FCoE functionality?
A. Interface reset on Ethernet 1/5 is preventing the FCoE connection from coming up
B. MTU size of 1500 on Ethernet interface 1/5 needs to be changed for FCoE to come UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 needs a layer 3 daughter card for FCoE to come UP on the Ethernet interface 1/5
D. Ethernet interface 1/5 is operational for FCoE and the status is UP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?
A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are two prerequisite to running the Smart Call Home feature on a Cisco nexus 6000 series switch? 300-165 dumps (Select two)
A. The switch must have SMTP access to an email server
B. The switch must have public management IP address
C. The switch must have SMTP access to a Cisco.com email server
D. The switch must have an active service contract
E. The switch must be configured to use an email address from the @cisco.com
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.
Select and Place:
300-165 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-165 dumps

QUESTION 15
Which command sequence correctly enables Adapter FEX on Nexus 5000 Series Switches?
A. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
B. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
C. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
D. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. random-detect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?
A. server-provided MAC address
B. Fibre Channel name server
C. fabric-provided MAC address
D. FIP proxy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which four options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Series Switch? 300-165 dumps (Choose four.)
A. line rate
B. managed by a parent switch
C. lossless 10 Gigabit Ethernet
D. lossless 100 Gigabit Ethernet
E. low latency
F. extremely low latency
G. hosts a virtual supervisor module
Correct Answer: ACEG

QUESTION 26
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D

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[Latest Questions] Which is the Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube

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The Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (21-50)

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. 210-060 dumps A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? 210-060 dumps (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat? 210-060 dumps
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 41
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 42
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 47
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

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[Latest Questions] Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-998 Dumps Exam Files And Youtube Demo Free Update

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642-998 dumps
QUESTION 1
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable server over a Cisco UCS B Series blade server?
A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.) 642-998 dumps
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM- FEX feature.
Which statement about VM-FEX is true?
A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.
D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?
A. high-availability during fabric failover
B. proper placement of server role
C. over committing CPU resources
D. additional virtual machine scalability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows XP
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C. OS X
D. VMware vSphere 4.0
E. VMware vSphere 5.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.
B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.
C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.
D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.
E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? 642-998 dumps (Choose three.)
A. packet capture
B. packet decode
C. filter and error scan
D. configure virtual machine
E. configure Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?
A. packet debug
B. troubleshoot performance
C. traffic analysis
D. API management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A. transparent operation management through an XML API
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
C. template-based policy management
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
E. disruptive administration model
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)
A. export destination IP address
B. source interface
C. UDP port number
D. TCP port number
E. NAT port number
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?
A. 32-bit dotted hex
B. 48-bit dotted hex
C. 64-bit dotted hex
D. 128-bit dotted hex
E. 160-bit dotted hex
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?
A. FCoE
B. DCBX
C. FIP
D. distributed FCF
E. 802.1Qbb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways? 642-998 dumps
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4000
C. Cisco Nexus 3016
D. Cisco Nexus 2232
E. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?
A. PAgP port channel
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. host vPC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?
A. data center location
B. support for heterogeneous compute environments
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer
D. choice of a hypervisor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements? 642-998 dumps
A. cloud compute
B. storage
C. desktop
D. network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fullyaware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. ACE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5500
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: D

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210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, 210-065 dumps which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the administrator? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. 210-065 dumps
Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
Correct Answer: BD

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200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is configured in enable mode.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which WAN protocol is being used?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
You have determined that computer A cannot ping computer B. 200-125 dumps Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The computer A subnet mask is incorrect.
B. The computer B subnet mask is incorrect.
C. The computer B default gateway address is incorrect.
D. The computer A default gateway address is incorrect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security   200-125 dumps
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

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400-151 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which statement best describes the concepts of rootkits and privilege escalation?
A. Rootkits propagate themselves.
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are a result of a privilege escalation.
D. Both of these require a TCP port to gain access.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? 400-151 dumps (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results?
A. firewall
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options describe the main purpose of EIGRP authentication?(Choose two)
A. to allow faster convergence
B. to identify authorized peers
C. to provide redundancy
D. to provide routing updates confidentiality
E. to prevent injection of incorrect routing information
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 7
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing? 400-151 dumps (Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
Correct Answer: AC
400-151 dumps
QUESTION 9
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

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[Latest Questions] 100% Pass With Best Cisco 300-115 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Shared

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Prepare for Cisco 300-115 exam with the best Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps real exam practice questions and answers shared from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo free update. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the name of Cisco CCDP https://www.leads4pass.com/300-115.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco CCDP 300-115 dumps exam training materials and study guides free try, pass Cisco 300-115 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
300-115 dumps Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?
A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit,
300-115 dumps
which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to-MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise? 300-115 dumps
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

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[Latest Questions] Best Useful Cisco 100-105 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Demo Free Shared

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Useful Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers free update from lead4pass. Get the best and most Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf practice files and vce youtube demo free shared at lead4pass. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco ICND1 https://www.leads4pass.com/100-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
100-105 dumps Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated? 100-105 dumps
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which statements accurately describe CDP? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

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[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 300-170 Dumps PDF Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

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Pass the Cisco 300-170 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt with the latest Cisco 300-170 dumps exam practice questions PDF and practice exam. http://www.passitdump.com/300-170.html Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-170 test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0x2002 and the next four bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address
B. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48 IPv6 address.
D. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16 IPv6 address.
E. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64 IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: AC
300-170
QUESTION 3                               300-170
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?   300-170
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?
A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer implemented Cisco EVN. Which feature implements shared services support?
A. edge interfacing
B. tunnel feedback
C. route replication
D. route redistribution
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which command instruct a PPPoE client to obtain its IP address from the PPPoe server?
A. Interface dialer
B. ip address negotiated
C. pppoe enable
D. Ip address DHCP
E. Ip address dynamic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections?
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D

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