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What is the best way to pass the RedHat EX300 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass RedHat expert.) You can get free RedHat RHCE certification EX300 exam practice test questions here.
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Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7：https://www.redhat.com/en/services/training/ex300-red-hat-certified-engineer-rhce-exam-red-hat-enterprise-linux-7

The performance-based Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 (EX300) tests to determine if your knowledge, skill, and ability meet those required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat® Enterprise Linux® systems. Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA®) certification is required to earn RHCE® certification.

This exam and the exam objectives provided here are based on the Red
 Hat Enterprise Linux 7 version of the exam.

An RHCE certification is earned by a Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) who has demonstrated the knowledge, skill, and ability required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat Enterprise Linux systems.

Latest updates RedHat EX300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

SIMULATION 

Configure the nfs server, share the /common directory to domain30.example.com, and allow client to have the root user

right when access as a root user. 

A. explanation 

Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here Webpage content modification. Implement website for http://serverX.example.com/owndir Create a
directory named as “owndir” under the document root of webserver Download
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/rhce/restrict.html Rename the file into ondex.html The content of the owndir
should be visible to everyone browsing from your local system but should not be accessible from other location
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure selinux.
Configure your systems that should be running in Enforcing.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q3

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here SMTP Configuration. Configure the SMTP mail service on serverX and desktopX which relay the mail
only from local system through station.network0.example.com, all outgoing mail have their sender domain as
example.com. Ensure that mail should not store locally. Verify the mail server is working by sending mail to a natasha
user. Check the mail on both serverX and desktopX with the below URL http://station.network0.example.com/system1
http://station.network0.example.com/system2
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q4

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You are working as an Administrator. There is a common data shared (/data) from 192.168.0.254 to all users in your
local LAN. When user\\’s system start, shared data should automatically mount on /common directory.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
To automatically mount at boot time, we use the /etc/fstab file. Because /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit file reads and mounts all file
system specified in /etc/fstab. To mount Network Sharing Files also use the /etc/fstab but filesystem is nfs.lead4pass ex300 exam question q5

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Script1.
Create a script on serverX called /root/random with the following details
When run as /root/random postconf, should bring the output as “postroll”
When run as /root/random postroll, should bring the output as “postconf”
When run with any other argument or without argument, should bring any other argument or without argument, should
bring the stderr as “/root/random postconf|postroll”
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q6

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q7

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure NFS service
Configure the NFS service on the system1, as required:
1.
Share the directory /public in read only way, just can be accessed by systems in domain11.example.com at the same
time.
2.
Share the directory /protected in rad and write way, Kerberos security encryption required, you can use the key
provided by the following URL: http://host.domain11.example.com/materials/nfs_server.keytab
3.
The directory /protected should contain the sub directory named project and the owner name is deepak;
4.
User deepak can access /protected/project in read and write ways
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
system1:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8lead4pass ex300 exam question q8

SIMULATION
Download file from http://ip/dir/restircted.html, and the local user harry can access it by
http://station.domain30.example.com/restircted.html, and cannot be accessed by t3gg.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10
The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0
Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are
all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q9

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be
able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using
virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link:
http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org
domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient
identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Database Query
Use database Contacts on the system1, and use the corresponding SQL to search and answer the following questions:
1.
What\\’s the person name whose password is solicitous?
2.
How many people\\’s names are John and live is Shanghai at the same time?
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account:lead4pass ex300 exam question q10

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score. You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be
accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems
of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure IPV6 Address
Configure interface eth0 on your test system, using the following IPV6 addresses: 1) The address of system1 should be
2003:ac18::305/64
(2)
The address of system2 should be 2003:ac18::30a/64
(3)
Both two systems must be able to communicate with systems in network 2003:ac18/64 (4) The address must still take
effect after restart
(5)
Both two systems must maintain the current Ipv4 address and can communicate
A.
explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11lead4pass ex300 exam question q11

SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure NFS mount.
Mount /nfsshare directory on desktopX under /public directory persistently at system boot time.
Mount /nfssecure/protected with krb5p secured share on desktopX beneath /secure/protected provided with keytab
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/
keytabs/desktopX.keytab
The user harry is able to write files on /secure directory
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-1

Verification from DesktopX:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-2

QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
Configure the web server, which can be accessed by http://station.domain30.example.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q12

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: Alead4pass ex300 exam question q13

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Get real CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam questions and CAS-003 dumps practice for free

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA CASP

Where can I get the real (CASP) CAS-003 exam questions? Braindump4it shares the latest and effective CompTIA CASP CAS-003 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative CompTIA exam experts update CAS-003 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full CAS-003 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-003.html (491 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

Table of Contents:

Latest CompTIA CAS-003 google drive

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)：https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

About the Exam

The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security. The CASP+ exam covers the following:

  • Enterprise security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques and requirements
  • More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyberdefense needs to meet business goals
  • Expanding security control topics to include mobile and small-form-factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
  • Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
  • Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as blockchain, cryptocurrency and mobile device encryption

Latest updates CompTIA CAS-003 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or
terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the
website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page
login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and
that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web
server log:
10.235.62.11 ?- [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET /site/script.php?user=admiand;pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200
5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented
by the developer?
A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and
the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the
browser side.
C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input
validation.
D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should
ensure strong passwords are enforced.
Correct Answer: C
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code `1=1\\’ will always provide a value of true.
This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.
In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It
is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements
are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must
exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for
string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly
executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL
database.

QUESTION 3
An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP
tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and
sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely
reason for the need to sanitize the client data?
A. Data aggregation
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data isolation
D. Data volume
E. Data analytics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing
sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically
destroyed.
Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?
A. Sovereignty
B. E-waste
C. Remanence
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-
related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be
used once or not at all.
Select and Place:lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5-1

Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.
With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot
control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.
Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data
would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.
No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.
Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified
as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant
risk.
Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to
certain windows.
The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application
windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.

QUESTION 6
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application.
The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application
designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance
overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select
TWO).
A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode
C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
D. Use AES with cipher text padding
E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
F. Use AES in Counter mode
Correct Answer: EF
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be
random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property
whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between
segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived
internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as
stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be
derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is
the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by
encrypting successive values of a “counter”. The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is
guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.

QUESTION 7
Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base. This purchase includes
several offices in different countries. To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee
activity may be monitored and reviewed. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this
practice?
A. The excessive time it will take to merge the company\\’s information systems.
B. Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements.
C. Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews.
D. The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user on a virtual machine downloads a large file using a popular peer-to-peer torrent program. The user is unable to
execute the program on their VM. A security administrator scans the VM and detects a virus in the program. The
administrator reviews the hypervisor logs and correlates several access attempts to the time of execution of the virus.
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior?
A. The hypervisor host does not have hardware acceleration enabled and does not allow DEP.
B. The virus scanner on the VM changes file extensions of all programs downloaded via P2P to prevent execution.
C. The virtual machine is configured to require administrator rights to execute all programs.
D. The virus is trying to access a virtual device which the hypervisor is configured to restrict.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
During an incident involving the company main database, a team of forensics experts is hired to respond to the breach.
The team is in charge of collecting forensics evidence from the company\\’s database server. Which of the following is
the correct order in which the forensics team should engage?
A. Notify senior management, secure the scene, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, implement chain
of custody, and analyze original media.
B. Take inventory, secure the scene, capture RAM, capture hard drive, implement chain of custody, document, and
analyze the data.
C. Implement chain of custody, take inventory, secure the scene, capture volatile and non-volatile storage, and
document the findings.
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D. Secure the scene, take inventory, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, document, and implement
chain of custody.
Correct Answer: D
The scene has to be secured first to prevent contamination. Once a forensic copy has been created, an analyst will
begin the process of moving from most volatile to least volatile information. The chain of custody helps to protect the
integrity and reliability of the evidence by keeping an evidence log that shows all access to evidence, from collection to
appearance in court.

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing company is having issues with unauthorized access and modification of the controls operating the
production equipment. A communication requirement is to allow the free flow of data between all network segments at
the site. Which of the following BEST remediates the issue?
A. Implement SCADA security measures.
B. Implement NIPS to prevent the unauthorized activity.
C. Implement an AAA solution.
D. Implement a firewall to restrict access to only a single management station.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security architect is seeking to outsource company server resources to a commercial cloud service provider. The
provider under consideration has a reputation for poorly controlling physical access to datacenters and has been the
victim of multiple social engineering attacks. The service provider regularly assigns VMs from multiple clients to the
same physical resources. When conducting the final risk assessment which of the following should the security architect
take into consideration?
A. The ability to implement user training programs for the purpose of educating internal staff about the dangers of social
engineering.
B. The cost of resources required to relocate services in the event of resource exhaustion on a particular VM.
C. The likelihood a malicious user will obtain proprietary information by gaining local access to the hypervisor platform.
D. Annual loss expectancy resulting from social engineering attacks against the cloud service provider affecting
corporate network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Company A is purchasing Company B, and will import all of Company B\\’s users into its authentication system.
Company A uses 802.1x with a RADIUS server, while Company B uses a captive SSL portal with an LDAP backend.
Which of the following is the BEST way to integrate these two networks?
A. Enable RADIUS and end point security on Company B\\’s network devices.
B. Enable LDAP authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
C. Enable LDAP/TLS authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
D. Enable 802.1x on Company B\\’s network devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on
their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\\’s guest WiFi network which is
isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be
accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the
doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to
prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
Correct Answer: AD
Privacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor\\’s personal device. This can then be
shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor\\’s personal device could have malware
on it.

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[Latest Questions] Latest HP HPE0-J74 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Posted by admin on in HP

2018 latest high quality HP HPE0-J74 dumps exam training materials and study guide, the best HP HPE0-J74 exam practice questions and answers online free update. 100% success and guarantee to pass HP HPE0-J74 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which HPE StoreVirtual features enable substantially increased effciency? (Select two.)
A. space reclamation
B. iSCSI storage clustering
C. storage federation
D. reservation-less thin provisioning
E. network RAID
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reducti n
E. Thin provisioning
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are using HPE Library and Tape Tools to document serial number and firmware versions of your customers tape
infrastructure. What do you use to perform this?
A. diagnostics option
B. device into option
C. support ticket option
D. failure analysis option
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer is opening a new remote office They have servers containing internal storage that they plan to virtualize
They currently own existing HPE Data Protector licenses Which data protection solution would be ideal for them?
A. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE StoreEasy 1000 C. HPE StoreOnce VSA
D. HPE StoreEver LTO-7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which RAID level uses double parity Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which element of HPE\’s BURA storage portfolio provides deduplicated backup disk storage?
A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEver
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Store All
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What does the HPE StoreVirtual solution provide?
A. scale-out storage
B. SAN. NAS and object storage
C. file level storage
D. scale-up storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which service is used in a NAS environment, but not a SAN environment?
A. block access services
B. direct access services
C. object access services D. file access services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ virtualization technology provides DHAM cache extension to reduce application response ti
for read intensive I/O workloads?
A. Priority Optimization
B. Adaptive Flash Cache
C. Persistent Cache
D. Rapid Provisioning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology supports automatic path rerouting it all ISLs between two switches fail?
A. Flat SAN
B. single cote-edge
C. cascade
D. mesh
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A customer has a number of server blades in a BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure and an HP D2220sb Storage Blade, and
wants to implement a small test and development iSCSI SAN. What can provide this functionality?
A. Windows Storage Server
B. VMware ESXi
C. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
D. HPE StoreOnce VSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under the HPE Converged Storage strategy, which type of primary storage is provided through NAS solutions?
A. sequential
B. object
C. block D. file
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which component performs the iSCSI encapsulation process in an iSCSI SAN environment when not using a TCP/IP
Offload Engine (TOE) card?
A. network switch
B. softwareinitiator
C. network interface card
D. GBIC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about thin provisioning?
A. It stores frequently accessed files in a local cache to reduce the consumed storage space.
B. It allows allocation of physical storage resources only after they are consumed by an application.
C. It removes allocated. Out unused space with minimal performance impact.
D. It uses a real-ti I/O engine to intelligently position data on the most appropriate tier of storage.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which operating systems support space reclamation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2012
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 SP2
C. VMware vSphere (ESXi) 5.x
D. Ubuntu 12 x
E. SLES 9 x
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which benefits are enabled by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO? {Select two.)
A. synchronous streaming replication between HPE StoreVirtual nodes
B. automatic creation of an I/O pain to each storage system in the cluster on which the volume resides C. Network RAID 10 use between multi-site clusters tor Windows servers
D. improved architecture over native MPIO solutions
E. enhanced backup capabilites of HPE StoreVirtual nodes
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Your customer is considering moving their storage from HPE ProLiant Servers with direct attached HPE D3700 storage
shelves, to HPE StoreVirtual VSA, You
want to demonstrate the management console to the customer.
Which console should you use?
A. CMC
B. SMU
C. SSMC
D. IMC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your customer requested a Network Attached Storage (NAS) solution that allows Microsoft Windows users to continue
working uninterrupted during hardware failures Which HPEStore Easy functionality supports transparent failover?
A. SMB V3
B. InstantOn
C. Data Guarding
D. Peer Motion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which HPE primary production storage solution is targeted to the small and mid-sized business markets?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE StoreAll
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE StoreEver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20

What are benefits of using the NinjaProtected Tool? (Select two.)
A. identifies the agents that the solution needs
B. identifies potential deduplication-driven benefits
C. measures the performance of transactions
D. assists in finding opportunities for cost reductions
E. simplifies the number of licenses required
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
What are hardware components of a Fibre Channel SAN fabric implementation? (Select two.)
A. server
B. enclosure
C. SFP+ transceivers
D. host bus adapter
E. array controller
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
A customer has the following requirements for a new storage solution for the company\’s 4-node HPE ProLiant DL380
Gen9 SQL Cluster: ?fully redundant SAS connectivity ?dual controller architecture ?mixed drive support ?4 pons per
controller ?SSD drive support Which storage solution meets the customer requirements?
A. HPE 3PAR 8200
B. HPE MSA 2040
C. HPE MSA 1040
D. HPE D3700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What is the term for the maximum allowable period for a business to be without a specific application should a disaster
occur?
A. Service Level Objective
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Recovery Point Objective D. Recovery Time Objective
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A customer is experiencing rapid data growth and requires more backup data to be available online. Which technology
could benefit the customer?
A. deduplication
B. wide striping
C. snapshots
D. tiering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which software is used to assign or zone D6000 drive bays directly to an HPE BladeSystem server bay?
A. Virtual SAS Manager (VSM)
B. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
C. Onboard Administrator (OA)
D. Array configuration utility (ACU)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which networking transport protocol is used in a NAS environment?
A. TCP
B. FCIP
C. Ethernet
D. Token Ring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which HPE management tool provides a single integrated management environment with powerful search capabilities
and an open architecture?
A. HPE Insight Remote Support
B. HPE Systems Insight Manager
C. HPE OneView D. HPE SUM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which benefit does dual-domain offer over dual-path SAS?
A. Dual-path SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HIBA) failure.
B. Dual-domain SAS implementations provide some lower cost solutions that cover cable failure.
C. Dual-path SAS implementations provide full redundancy of a SAS solution.
D. Dual-domain SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HBA) failure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A large SMB customer requests a storage solution in which downtime is not an option. What is the requirement?
A. RPO must be zero.
B. RPO must be very low.
C. RTO must be very low.
D. RTO must be zero.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First device
Correct Answer: B

HP HPE ATP – Storage Solutions V2 is omnipresent all around the world, and the HP HPE0-J74 business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies.

[2020.4] Microsoft AZ-301 exam exercise questions and the latest updates AZ-301 dumps

Posted by admin on in azure az 301 dumps, azure az-301, azure az-301 pdf, azure az-301 sample questions, azure az-301 study guide, Microsoft, microsoft az-301 dumps, microsoft az-301 practice test, microsoft az-301 study guide, microsoft azure az-301, Microsoft Azure Exam certification 2020

Microsoft AZ-301 is the latest Microsoft exam code for 2020.
The new Microsoft exam is a brand new test! Braindump4it offers the latest AZ-301 exam dumps, AZ-301 pdf, AZ-301 free exams to help you improve your skills! Improve the exam pass! Lea4pass is our partner and they have the most authoritative testing experts! Easily pass the exam,
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Braindump4it Exam Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft AZ-301 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft AZ-301 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1JxGKgNbL9qQtnY3iD2h7GKHOr8Ugf2Hg

Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-301

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure,
scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting,
and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient
in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Skills measured

  • A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-304, WILL BE AVAILABLE ON OR AROUND JUNE 29, 2020. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on or around September 30, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
  • Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
  • Design for identity and security (20-25%)
  • Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
  • Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
  • Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
  • Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You plan to import data from your on-premises environment into Azure. The data is shown in the following table.braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1

What should you recommend using to migrate the data? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct data
sources. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1-2

QUESTION 2
You have a standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet.
You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails.
Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the
correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:braindump4it az-301 exam questions q2

QUESTION 3
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native
executable that performs image processing.
The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not
running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources.
You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure Batch application that runs the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use an Azure Logic Apps, which helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow

QUESTION 4
You are building an application that will run in a virtual machine (VM). The application will use Managed Service Identity
(MSI).
The application uses Azure Key Vault, Azure SQL Database, and Azure Cosmos DB.
You need to ensure the application can use secure credentials to access these services.
Which authorization methods should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:braindump4it az-301 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run on old versions of Windows and Linux. The company
plans to place applications in containers.
You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The
solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You deploy each application to an Azure Web App that has container support.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are designing software as a service (SaaS) application that will enable the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to
create and publish surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app
will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys.
You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens.
The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:braindump4it az-301 exam questions q6

QUESTION 7
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) environment.
Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops
that are connected to the corporate network.
You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the
Enable single sign-on option.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive
the workload that performs financial risk modeling.
You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch.
You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Basic A-series virtual machines
B. low-priority virtual machines
C. burstable virtual machines
D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

QUESTION 9
You are developing a web application that provides streaming video to users. You configure the application to use
continuous integration and deployment.
The app must be highly available and provide a continuous streaming experience for users.
You need to recommend a solution that allows the application to store data in a geographical location that is closest to
the user.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure App Service Web Apps
B. Azure App Service Isolated
C. Azure Redis Cache
D. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: D
Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is a global CDN solution for delivering high-bandwidth content. It can be hosted
in Azure or any other location. With Azure CDN, you can cache static objects loaded from Azure Blob storage, a web
application, or any publicly accessible web server, by using the closest point of presence (POP) server. Azure CDN can
also accelerate dynamic content, which cannot be cached, by leveraging various network and routing optimizations.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/cdn/

QUESTION 10
Your company has 20 web APIs that were developed in-house.
The company is developing 10 web apps that will use web APIs. The web apps and the APIs are registered in the
company\\’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The web APIs are published by using Azure API Management.
You need to recommend a solution to block unauthorized requests originating from the web apps from reaching the web
APIs. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use Azure AD-generated claims.
Minimize configuration and management effort.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:braindump4it az-301 exam questions q10

QUESTION 11
You have 20 Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 based on a custom virtual machine image. Each
virtual machine an instance of a VSS-capable app that was developed in-house. Each instance is accessed by the public
endpoint. Each instance separate database. The average database size is 200 GB.
You need to design a disaster recovery solution for individual instances.
Provide a recovery objective time object (RTO] of six hours.
Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) at eight hours.
Support recovery to a different Azure region.
Support VSS- based backups.
Minimize VSS-based backups.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE:
Each correct selection is worth one point
Hot Area:braindump4it az-301 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q11-1

QUESTION 12
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that is integrated with Microsoft
Office 365 and an Azure subscription.
Contoso has an on-premises identity infrastructure. The infrastructure includes servers that run Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS), Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), Azure AD Connect, and Microsoft Identity Manager
(MIM).
Contoso has a partnership with a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam has an Active Directory forest and an Office
365 tenant. Fabrikam has the same on-premises identity infrastructure as Contoso.
A team of 10 developers from Fabrikam will work on an Azure solution that will be hosted in the Azure subscription of
Contoso. The developers must be added to the Contributor role for a resource in the Contoso subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that Contoso can assign the role to the 10 Fabrikam developers. The
solution must ensure that the Fabrikam developers use their existing credentials to access resources.
What should you recommend?
A. Configure a forest trust between the on-premises Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.
B. Configure an organization relationship between the Office 365 tenants of Fabrikam and Contoso.
C. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, enable Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS). Create a one-way forest trust that uses selective authentication between the Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.
D. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, create guest accounts for the Fabrikam developers.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-external-users

QUESTION 13
You have an on-premises network and an Azure subscription. The on-premises network has several branch offices.
A branch office in Toronto contains a virtual machine named VM1 that is configured as a file server. Users access the
shared files on VM1 from all the offices.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can access the shares files as quickly as possible if the
Toronto branch office is inaccessible.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a Recovery Services vault and Azure Backup
B. an Azure file share and Azure File Sync
C. Azure blob containers and Azure File Sync
D. a Recovery Services vault and Windows Server Backup
Correct Answer: B
Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization\\’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility,
performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick
cache of your
Azure file share.
You need an Azure file share in the same region that you want to deploy Azure File Sync.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Backups would be a slower solution.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

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Easily pass the 200-310 exam, share the effective Cisco 200-310 Learning Guide for free

Posted by admin on in CCDA, Cisco

How can I get a valid 200-310 study guide for passing the 200-310 exam? Braindump4it shares the latest and effective Cisco 200-310 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 200-310 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 200-310 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-310.html (660 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 200-310 google drive

[PDF] Free Cisco 200-310 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1yvKv0TlXUY0gofovvmO1QUyk2uyuLnO-

200-310 desgn – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-310-desgn.html

This exam requires a foundation or apprentice knowledge of network design for the Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks.

Latest updates Cisco CCDA 200-310 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs

between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use the existing WAN.

Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used? 

A. VPLS 

B. L2TPv3 

C. OTV 

D. AToM 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 2

A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy

to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.) 

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit 

B. ISDN BRI 

C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet 

D. DWDM l 

E. POTS Line T1 WAN 

Correct Answer: AC 

QUESTION 3

Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right. 

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Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts?
A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?
A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. extra large
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase uplink
utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding
new physical connections?
A. enable spanning-tree portfast
B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Applications
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which STP feature allows an access port to bypass the learning and listening states?
A. Root Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. BPDU Guard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two considerations are important when designing the access layer? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. QoS services
C. routing between VLANs
D. HSRP implementation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A. G.711
B. G.718
C. G.722
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC
Frame relay is old \\’shared\\’ technology today\\’s sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is an example of a fixed two-level hierarchical routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. static routes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is one of the methods that Cisco routers and switches can use to share information between directly
connected devices on a regular basis?
A. NetFlow
B. ARP
C. NHRP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 210-065 exam questions, 210-065 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Posted by admin on in CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

“Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)” Exam 210-065. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-065 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-065 exam: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of and skills to implement various Cisco Video endpoints in converged Cisco video infrastructures. It also tests a candidate’s ability to implement and troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communication and Collaboration, TelePresence, and Digital Media Player in different Cisco business video solution architectures. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/210-065.html exam.

Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco 210-065 pdf

[PDF] Free Cisco 210-065 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1wb3l8cEpQOnjCZGvOv0u90AP29BjU2p4

210-060 CICD – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/civnd.html

Free Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. bursty
Correct Answer: CDEG

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid high-contrast elements
C. Use earth tone paint colors
D. Avoid plants or decorations
E. Use glossy finishes
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/cts_3010/assembly_guide/3010_assembly_guide/3010_room_recommendations.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco DMS component is used for content recording?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco TCS
C. Cisco DMM
D. Cisco DMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a
Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the
local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/profile-series/tc6/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc60.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which two fields must be configured for a Cisco TelePresence device to connect to a Phonebook source? (Choose
two.)
A. Phonebook Server > URL
B. Phonebook Server > Type
C. Phonebook Server > Provisioning
D. Phonebook Server > Phonebook
E. Phonebook Server > Host
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which three features does a Cisco TelePresence Content Server provide that a Cisco MCU cannot? (Choose three.)
A. conference bridge virtualization support
B. multiple conference layouts
C. resource optimization via conductor
D. 720p resolution at 60 fps
E. 1080p resolution at 60 fps
F. multiscreen immersive room endpoint support
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 7
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias > Template > Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > Template
C. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > H.323 > Template
D. Recording Alias > Workflow > Template > Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: Dlead4pass 210-065 exam question q8

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/mx-series/tc7/administration-guide/mx700-mx800-administrator-guide-tc72.pdf

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Manager
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server
Correct Answer: AC
Features and Benefits
Benefits of Cisco TMS include:
Scalable provisioning: Cisco TMS can support rapid, large-scale deployments of up to 100,000 Cisco TelePresence
users, endpoints, and soft clients across disparate customer locations, including up to 5,000 direct-managed devices.
Centralized administration: Cisco TMS automates and simplifies the management of Cisco Telepresence meetings and
Cisco Telepresence infrastructure resources, reducing your total cost of ownership (TCO). Flexible scheduling: Cisco
TMS makes scheduling Cisco Telepresence meetings more accessible with a range of tools including a simple and
intuitive Smart Scheduler option, extensions for Microsoft Exchange integration, and advanced booking capabilities for
experienced administrators.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html

QUESTION 10
Which conference types can occur at any time without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created
as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Correct Answer: E
Rendezvous conferences (also called meet-me, static, or permanent conferences) require endpoints to dial in to a
predetermined multipoint resource. These multipoint resources are shared by a number of endpoints and are capable of
hosting many conferences at the same time. Because a dedicated device is used to host rendezvous conferences,
these conferences can have many more participants than multisite conferences (but not necessarily more than an ad-
hoc conference on a dedicated multipoint device).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/confernc.html

QUESTION 11
Which two features are supported by the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server? (Choose two.)
A. motion detection
B. clustering
C. IP and analog cameras
D. MPEG-2 and MPEG-4 encoding
E. virtual matrix
Correct Answer: AC
Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server features include:
Flexibility to use a broad array of analog cameras and IP cameras
Simultaneous MJPEG and MPEG-4 encoding
Low-latency video with high-quality images
CIF, 2CIF, and 4CIF, up to 30 fps
PTZ and alarm inputs
Motion detection
Scalable deployment with multiple sites, cameras, users, and storage
Archives at different frame rate, duration, and location
Efficient redundant multi-site archiving that conserves bandwidth
Loop-and event-tagged video recording and event export (video clip) capabilities
Ability to connect to external storage
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/28981/cisco-video-surveillance-encoding-server

QUESTION 12
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for
TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber
registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence
capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in
the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which function does a Cisco TCS recording alias perform?
A. It links recorded media to a specified output location.
B. It provides a dialable alias that will trigger a TCS recording workflow.
C. It sends media to Cisco Medianet.
D. It provides an alias for the recorded filename.
Correct Answer: B
Understanding Recording Aliases
The Content Server records calls and can produce the resulting recordings in a range of formats and sizes for users to
watch or download. Creators of recordings can make recordings available to all or selected users. To make recordings,
creators must use a recording alias. A recording alias defines several properties, including ones related to dialing the
Content Server from an endpoint for the recording session; specifying recording outputs; and indicating viewing and
editing
permissions (see Recording Alias Properties).
There are two types of recording alias:
System recording aliases, which can be used by any user in the creator or site manager role.
Personal recording aliases, which have owners in the creator role. Owners can edit certain parts of their recording
aliases: recording settings, default recording information, and default recording permissions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html#wp999176

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Cisco 210-060 exam questions, 210-060 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Posted by admin on in CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

“Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)” Exam 210-060. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-060 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-060 exam – This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco UC solutions maintenance. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/210-060.html exam.

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210-060 CICD – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/cicd.html

Free Cisco 210-060 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

In which three ways does QoS provide better network service VoIP quality? (Choose three.) 

A. minimizes priority queuing 

B. manages network congestion 

C. improves loss characteristics 

D. supports dedicated bandwidth 

E. decreases traffic priorities 

F. increases packet size 

Correct Answer: BCD 

In general, QoS provides better (and more predictable) network service by providing the following features: ?Supporting

dedicated bandwidth ?Improving loss characteristics ?Avoiding and managing network congestion ?Shaping network

traffic ?Setting traffic priorities across the network Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/qos_solutions/QoSVoIP/QoSVoIP.pdf 

QUESTION 2

An engineer is selecting a digital media player and must ensure that there are Ethernet downlink ports. Which model

has these ports? 

A. Edge 300 DMP 

B. Edge 340 DMP 

C. 4310 DMP 

D. 4400 DMP 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 

A. Port Monitor 

B. Called Party Tracing 

C. System Summary 

D. Trace and Log Central 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 4

An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator

configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? 

A. Cisco Quality Report Tool 

B. System Log Management 

C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting 

D. Cisco JTAPI 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5

How many servers can be supported in a Cisco IM and Presence Service Cluster? 

A. 10 

B. 2 

C. 8 

D. 6 

E. 4 

Correct Answer: D 

The Cisco IM and Presence Service cluster consists of up to a maximum of six servers, which can be configured into

multiple subclusters with the maximum of three subclusters for high availability. 

QUESTION 6

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-
peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-1 lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-2

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port
used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-3

QUESTION 7
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement
assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco 7800
C. Cisco DX650
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which four fields are required when manually configuring IP phones in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
(Choose four.)
A. MAC Address
B. IP Address
C. Hunt Group
D. VLAN ID
E. Device Pool
F. Phone Button Template
G. Dial Peer
H. Device Security Profile
Correct Answer: AEFH

QUESTION 9
An engineer has updated the company dial plan and wants to get rid of unassigned numbers. Which action must be
taken in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to accomplish this task?
A. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Group
B. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Plan Report
C. Delete unassigned DNs under Route List
D. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Pattern
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91_chapter_0101111.pdf

QUESTION 10
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid plants or decorations
C. Use glossy finishes
D. Avoid high-contrast elements
E. Use earth tone paint colors
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is configuring a user to have Cisco Extension Mobility. Where is the line configured?
A. Primary Extension
B. Device Profile
C. User Configuration
D. CAPF Profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user\\’s 7945 IP
phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

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Provides a valid Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam dumps | 100% Free

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Braindump4it shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam “Identity with Windows Server 2016”
https://www.leads4pass.com/70-742.html (276 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 70-742 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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Exam 70-742: Identity with Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft：https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-742.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
  • Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
  • Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
  • Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
  • Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).

Candidates should also be familiar implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.

Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You deploy a new Active Directory forest. 

You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.

Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each member server. Does this

meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named

Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. 

Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server

retrieves data from Server2. 

You create a domain user account named User1. 

You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP. 

Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. 

Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Computers container.
B. Run the redircmp.exe command.
C. Modify the Security settings of the technician\\’s user account.
D. Add the technician to the Windows Authorization Access group.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active
Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains three domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q4

The company physically relocates Server2 from the Montreal office to the Seattle office.
You discover that both Server1 and Server2 authenticate users who sign in to the client computers in the Montreal
office. Only Server3 authenticates users who sign in to the computers in the Seattle office.
You need to ensure that Server2 authenticates the users in the Seattle office during normal network operations.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADReplicationSite cmdlet.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Location Property of Server2.
C. From Network Connections on Server2, modify the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) configuration.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADDirectoryServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy a new Active Directory forest.
You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.
Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each domain controller.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company implements Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You confirm that the company meets all the prerequisites for using Microsoft Azure Multi- Factor Authentication (MFA)
and AD FS.
You need to ensure that you can select MFA as the primary authentication method for AD FS.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an enterprise certification
authority (CA).
A user named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You need to ensure that you can archive keys on the CA. The solution must use Admin1 as a key recovery agent.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q7-1

http://markgossa.blogspot.com/2017/03/enable-key-archival-in-server-2012-r2.html

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain has a password policy that requires
at least seven characters.
You create an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. and then run the following commands.
redirusr OU=OU1.DC-Adatum,DC=com
New-ADUser User1
You need to identity the state of User1.
What should you identify?
A. User1 is created in OUT, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
B. User1 is created in the Users container, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests.
C. User1 is created in the Users container, is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
D. User1 is created in 0U1. is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-1

Box 1: Pass-through
Box 2: Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS)
Box 3: Pass-through
The following table describes the Exchange services that you can publish through Web Application Proxy and the
supported preauthentication for these services:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q9-2

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn528827(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 10
Your company has an office in Montreal. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named Montreal that contains all of the users accounts for the users in the
Montreal office. An office manager in the Montreal office knows each user personally.
You need to ensure that the office manager can provide the users with a new password if the users forget their
password.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Montreal OU. Assign the office manager the Apply
Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO.
B. From the Security settings of each user account in the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Change
Password permission.
C. From the Security settings of the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Reset Password permission.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the OU of the domain. Filter the GPO to the Montreal users.
Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of
the GPO.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected].
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -ADuser User1 -UserPrincipalName [email protected].
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network is isolated from the Internet. The network contains computers that are members of a domain and
computers that are members of a workgroup. All the computers are configured to use internal DNS servers and WINS
servers for name resolution.
The domain has a certification authority (CA). You run the Get-CACrlDistributionPoint cmdlet and receive the output as
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12

Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-742 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 desktop computers
and 500 laptops. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the computer accounts for the desktop computers
and
the laptops.
You create a Windows PowerShell script named Script1.ps1 that removes temporary files and cookies. You create a
Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to run the script once weekly only on the laptops.
What should you do?
A. In GPO1, create a File preference that uses item-level targeting.
B. In GPO1, create a Scheduled Tasks preference that uses item-level targeting.
C. In GPO1, configure the File System security policy. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. In GPO1, add Script1.ps1 as a startup script. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1.
Correct Answer: B

Get the latest 700-265 dumps with the Cisco Specialist 700-265 Certification Exam

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exam cisco

The latest Cisco Specialist 700-265 exam dump and 700-265 pdf free sharing, easily pass the Cisco Specialist 700-265 exam certification. “Advanced Security Architecture for Account Managers” Lead4pass year-round exam questions to ensure high pass rates

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Test your Cisco Specialist 700-265 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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Get the latest 400-251 dumps with the Cisco CCIE 400-251 Certification Exam

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Table of Contents:

Latest Cisco CCIE 400-251 pdf

[PDF] Free Cisco CCIE 400-251 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1izuLzJAFClLatQZtmzmy_cnCuTi-mfLy

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400-251 CCIE Security – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/400-251-ccie-security.html

Test your Cisco CCIE 400-251 exam level

QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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