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This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational-level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud based solutions and services, or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services, as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational-level knowledge around cloud services. Technical IT experience is not required, however, some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.
Skills measured
The content of this exam will be updated on May 28, 2020. NOTE: the updates that were announced prior to April 15, 2020 will be implemented on September 15, 2020. The updates now planned for May 28 are minor updates to wording; please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing on May 28.
Understand cloud concepts (15-20%)
Understand core Azure services (30-35%)
Understand security, privacy, compliance, and trust (25-30%)
Understand Azure pricing and support (20-25%)
Latest updates Microsoft AZ-900 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Authorization is the process of verifying a user\\’s credentials. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Authentication C. Federation D. Ticketing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to cloud infrastructure and for implementing consistency across the Azure environment. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Resource groups provide C. Azure Resource Manager provides D. Management groups provide Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Your company plans to deploy an Artificial Intelligence (AI) solution in Azure. What should the company use to build, test, and deploy predictive analytics solutions? A. Azure Logic Apps B. Azure Machine Learning Studio C. Azure Batch D. Azure Cosmos DB Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You plan to store 20 TB of data in Azure. The data will be accessed infrequently and visualized by using Microsoft Power BI. You need to recommend a storage solution for the data. Which two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Azure Data Lake B. Azure Cosmos DB C. Azure SQL Data Warehouse D. Azure SQL Database E. Azure Database for PostgreSQL Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. An Azure region contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a low-latency network. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Is found in each country where Microsoft has a subsidiary office C. Can be found in every country in Europe and the Americas only D. Contains one or more data centers that are connected by using a high-latency network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You plan to migrate several servers from an on-premises network to Azure. You need to identify the primary benefit of using a public cloud service for the servers. What should you identify? A. The public cloud is owned by the public, NOT a private corporation B. The public cloud is a crowd-sourcing solution that provides corporations with the ability to enhance the cloud C. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member of the public D. The public cloud is a shared entity whereby multiple corporations each use a portion of the resources in the cloud Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. All Azure services that are in public preview are provided without any documentation. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed. B. only configurable from Azure CLI C. excluded from the Service Level Agreements D. only configurable from the Azure portal Correct Answer: C Preview features are made available to you on the condition that you accept additional terms which supplement the regular Azure terms. The supplemental terms state: “PREVIEWS ARE PROVIDED “AS-IS,” “WITH ALL FAULTS,” AND “AS AVAILABLE,” AND ARE EXCLUDED FROM THE SERVICE LEVEL AGREEMENTS AND LIMITED WARRANTY.” References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/preview-supplemental-terms/
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1. From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1. az VM create –resource-group RG1 –name VM1 — image UbuntuLTS –generate-ssh-keys You need to create VM1 in Subscription1 by using the command. Solution: From a computer that runs Windows 10, install Azure CLI. From PowerShell, sign in to Azure and then run the command. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 You plan to implement an Azure database solution. You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements: Can add data concurrently from multiple regions Can store JSON documents Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
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latest updated Microsoft 98-366 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1 Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network? A. Number of hosts connected to the network B. Number of domain servers on the segment C. Maximum speed of the media D. Topology and protocols Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 One purpose of a perimeter network is to: A. Make resources available to the intranet. B. Link campus area networks (CANs). C. Link local area networks (LANs). D. Make resources available to the Internet. Correct Answer: D In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization\\’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization\\’s local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
QUESTION 3 What type of DNS resource record maps an IP address to a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)? A. CNAME B. PTR C. AAAA D. A Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which protocol can be used to encrypt packets on the Internet? A. SNMP B. HTTPS C. TFTP D. HTTP Correct Answer: B HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, makes it more difficult for hackers, the NSA, and others to track users. The protocol makes sure the data isn\\’t being transmitted in plain-text format, which is much easier to eavesdrop on.
QUESTION 5 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. IPSec policies for two machines on a LAN can be modified by using the “IPSec policy snap-in” on Windows 7. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select \\’ No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct. A. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in B. LAN adapter properties C. Remote Access snap-in D. No change is needed Correct Answer: A Windows Firewall with Advanced Security is an advanced interface for IT professionals to use to configure both Windows Firewall and Internet Protocol security (IPsec) settings for the computers on their networks. Applies To: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Vista Reference: Windows Firewall with Advanced Security and IPsec
QUESTION 6 The maximum throughput of an 802.llg network is: A. 2.4 GHz. B. 54 GHz. C. 2.4 Mbps D. 54 Mbps. Correct Answer: D The 802.11g standard for wireless networking supports a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps.
QUESTION 7 The service that resolves fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses is: A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS). B. Domain Name Service (DNS). C. Internet Service Provider (ISP). D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). Correct Answer: B The DNS translates Internet domain and host names to IP addresses. DNS automatically converts the names we type in our Web browser address bar to the IP addresses of Web servers hosting those sites.
QUESTION 8 You receive a call from a family member who is unable to connect to a game server. You learn that the server\\’s IP is 172.16.2.11. To help, you ping the server and receive the information shown in the following image: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 The function of a router is to: A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts. B. Forward traffic to other networks. C. Broadcast routing tables to clients. D. Store tables for name resolution. Correct Answer: B A router is a device that forwards data packets along with networks. A router is connected to at least two networks, commonly two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its ISP\\’s network. Routers are located at gateways, the places where two or more networks connect.
QUESTION 10 Which connectivity option for wide area networks (WANs) is most readily available in most geographic areas? A. Leased line B. ISDN C. T1 D. Dial-up Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to: A. Increase the number of available IP addresses. B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains. D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain. Correct Answer: D VLANs provide the following advantages: * VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. … * VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. … * Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic. By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.
QUESTION 12 Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network? A. IPCONFIG B. ROUTE C. PING D. CHECK Correct Answer: C Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
QUESTION 13 Match the IPv4 address type to the corresponding definition. To answer, drag the appropriate definition from the column on the left to the address type on the right. Each definition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 2 You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that will retrieve data from a tabular database in Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization. The Analysis Services database has a DirectQuery connection to the SQL Server database that contains the source data. You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard. How should you configure the connection to the data source? A. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the Connect live option. B. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode. C. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode. D. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the Connect live option. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You plan to embed multiple visualizations on a public website. Your Power BI infrastructure contains the visualizations configured as shown in the following table.
Which two visualizations can you embed into the website? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Visual1 B. Visual2 C. Visual3 D. Visual4 E. Visual5 Correct Answer: BD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-publish-to-web
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets. You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power BI service. Solution: From the Power BI service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Import. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files
QUESTION 5 You have the datasets shown in the following graphic.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Note: Each selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a user named User!. User1 is a member of a security group named Contoso PowerB1. User1 has access to a workspace named Contoso Workspace. You need to prevent User1 from exporting data from the visualizations in Contoso Workspace. Solution: From the Power B1 Admin portal, you modify the Tenant settings. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Sales. Your company has 1,000 sales users. All sales users can access Sales. You create a report in an app workspace in the Power BI service. You embed the report into a page on the Sales site by using the Power BI web part. You need to ensure that all the sales can view the report from the Sales site. What should you do? A. Configure the app workspace for Premium capacity. B. Enable anonymous access for the Sales site. C. Configure the Portal Site Connection for the Sales site. D. Disable the Embed content in the apps setting from the Tenant settings in Power BI. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo
QUESTION 8 You have the visualization shown in the following exhibit.
What should you do? A. Create a calculated column that adds the % symbol to the values. B. From the Modeling tab, change the Data Type to Percentage. C. Edit the query of the data source and change the Data Type to Percentage. D. Create a measure that adds the % symbol to the values, Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 You are importing sales data from a Microsoft Excel file named Sales.xlsx into Power BI Desktop. You need to create a bar chart showing the total sales amount by region. When you create the bar chart, the regions appear as expected, but the sales amount value displays the count of sales amount instead of the sum of the sales amount in each region. You need to modify the query to ensure that the data appears correctly. What should you do? A. Delete the query, import the data into Microsoft SQL Server, and then import the data from SQL Server. B. In Query Editor, add a calculated column that totals the sales amount column. C. Change the Data Type of sales amount column to Numeric. D. Refresh the data model. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column. You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn. How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 You have a Power BI model that has the following tables: 1. Product (Product_id, Product_Name) 2. Sales (Order_id, Order_Date, Product_id, Salesperson_id, Sales_Amount) 3.Salesperson (Salesperson_id, Salesperson_name, address) You plan to create the following measure. Measure1 = DISTINCTCOUNT(Sales[ProductID]) You need to create the following relationships: 1. Sales to Product 2. Sales to Salesperson The solution must ensure that you can use Measure1 to display the count of products sold by each salesperson. How should you configure the relationships? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 From Power BI Desktop, you create a query that imports the following table.
What should you do? A. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters. B. From the Extract menu, click Text After Delimiter. C. From the Format menu, click Trim. D. From the Split Column menu, click BY Delimiter. Correct Answer: B References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt798301.aspx
QUESTION 13 You have a column named phone_number. The values in the columns are in one of the following formats: 999-999-9999×123 1-999-999-9999×232 +1-999-999-9999x66x666 The values after x in the phone-number column indicate the phone extension. You need to create a custom column in Query Editor that contains only the phone extensions. How should you complete the query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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Microsoft 70-740 exam “Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016”.
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Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.
Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.
Skills measured
Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
Implement High Availability (30-35%)
Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)
Latest Updates Microsoft 70-740 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
You have a stretch cluster that contains four nodes. You run Get-ClusterFaultDomain and receive the output shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab).
Node1 and Node2 are in a data center in an Active Directory site named London_Site. Node3 and Node4 are in an Active Directory site named Berlin_Site. You need to ensure that the active nodes are in London_Site unless both Node1 and Node2 are offline. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You need to identify which server is the schema master. Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click Operations Master. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role and Docker installed. You pull the Microsoft/IIS Docker image to Server1. You need to view the available space in the Microsoft/IIS Docker image. Solution: You run the following commands. docker run -name container1 -d Microsoft/IIS docker exec -I container1 cmd.exe dir Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No
You are preparing an image of Windows Server 2016. The image is missing the driver for a network adapter that is required in your environment. You need to ensure that the image contains the network adapter driver. Which three cmdlets should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the? answer area and arrange them m the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that has two network adapters. You need to create a NIC team on VM1. Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that is in a Running state. On Server1, you export VM1 and then you import VM1 on Server2. What is the current state of VM1 on Server2? A. Paused B. Off C. Saved D. Running
Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server. Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well as any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network. A. Private virtual network B. Internal virtual network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1. You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24. Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to deploy the first node cluster of a Network Controller cluster. Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10 domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. You run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.
QUESTION 10
You have a Hyper-V cluster that uses Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). The cluster contains 20 virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a single disk. You create a storage QoS policy that sets the minimum IOPS to 100 and the maximum IOPS to 200. You need to ensure that the storage traffic of each virtual machine complies with the storage QoS policy. What should you run? A. Set-VMHardDiskDrive B. Set-VM C. Set-VMHost D. Set-VHD
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is running. What should you do? A. Disable Dynamic Memory B. Enable Integration Services C. Upgrade the configuration version
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice maybe correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 As virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1 You need to configure monitoring of VM1 The solution must move VM1 to a different node if the Print Spooler service on VM1 stops unexpectedly Which tool should you use? A. the clussvc.exe command B. the cluster.exe command C. the Computer Management console D. the configurehyperv.exe command E. the Disk Management console F. the Failover Cluster Manager console G. the Hyper-V Manager console H. the Server Manager Desktop app
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server
Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016. Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named VM1. Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3 and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2. The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
VM1 is stored in C:\ClusterStorage\Volume1. You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
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Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.
Skills measured
A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-304, WILL BE AVAILABLE ON OR AROUND JUNE 29, 2020. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on or around September 30, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
Design for identity and security (20-25%)
Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)
Latest updates Microsoft AZ-301 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You plan to import data from your on-premises environment into Azure. The data is shown in the following table.
What should you recommend using to migrate the data? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct data sources. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 You have a standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet. You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails. Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native executable that performs image processing. The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources. You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour. Solution: Create an Azure Batch application that runs the image processing application every hour. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use an Azure Logic Apps, which helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow
QUESTION 4 You are building an application that will run in a virtual machine (VM). The application will use Managed Service Identity (MSI). The application uses Azure Key Vault, Azure SQL Database, and Azure Cosmos DB. You need to ensure the application can use secure credentials to access these services. Which authorization methods should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run on old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers. You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration. Solution: You deploy each application to an Azure Web App that has container support. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You are designing software as a service (SaaS) application that will enable the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to create and publish surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys. You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements: To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens. The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users. What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) environment. Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops that are connected to the corporate network. You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users. Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the Enable single sign-on option. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive the workload that performs financial risk modeling. You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch. You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements: Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs. Minimize cost. What should you include in the solution? A. Basic A-series virtual machines B. low-priority virtual machines C. burstable virtual machines D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview
QUESTION 9 You are developing a web application that provides streaming video to users. You configure the application to use continuous integration and deployment. The app must be highly available and provide a continuous streaming experience for users. You need to recommend a solution that allows the application to store data in a geographical location that is closest to the user. What should you recommend? A. Azure App Service Web Apps B. Azure App Service Isolated C. Azure Redis Cache D. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) Correct Answer: D Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is a global CDN solution for delivering high-bandwidth content. It can be hosted in Azure or any other location. With Azure CDN, you can cache static objects loaded from Azure Blob storage, a web application, or any publicly accessible web server, by using the closest point of presence (POP) server. Azure CDN can also accelerate dynamic content, which cannot be cached, by leveraging various network and routing optimizations. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/cdn/
QUESTION 10 Your company has 20 web APIs that were developed in-house. The company is developing 10 web apps that will use web APIs. The web apps and the APIs are registered in the company\\’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The web APIs are published by using Azure API Management. You need to recommend a solution to block unauthorized requests originating from the web apps from reaching the web APIs. The solution must meet the following requirements: Use Azure AD-generated claims. Minimize configuration and management effort. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 You have 20 Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 based on a custom virtual machine image. Each virtual machine an instance of a VSS-capable app that was developed in-house. Each instance is accessed by the public endpoint. Each instance separate database. The average database size is 200 GB. You need to design a disaster recovery solution for individual instances. Provide a recovery objective time object (RTO] of six hours. Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) at eight hours. Support recovery to a different Azure region. Support VSS- based backups. Minimize VSS-based backups. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that is integrated with Microsoft Office 365 and an Azure subscription. Contoso has an on-premises identity infrastructure. The infrastructure includes servers that run Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), Azure AD Connect, and Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM). Contoso has a partnership with a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam has an Active Directory forest and an Office 365 tenant. Fabrikam has the same on-premises identity infrastructure as Contoso. A team of 10 developers from Fabrikam will work on an Azure solution that will be hosted in the Azure subscription of Contoso. The developers must be added to the Contributor role for a resource in the Contoso subscription. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that Contoso can assign the role to the 10 Fabrikam developers. The solution must ensure that the Fabrikam developers use their existing credentials to access resources. What should you recommend? A. Configure a forest trust between the on-premises Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam. B. Configure an organization relationship between the Office 365 tenants of Fabrikam and Contoso. C. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, enable Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS). Create a one-way forest trust that uses selective authentication between the Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam. D. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, create guest accounts for the Fabrikam developers. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-external-users
QUESTION 13 You have an on-premises network and an Azure subscription. The on-premises network has several branch offices. A branch office in Toronto contains a virtual machine named VM1 that is configured as a file server. Users access the shared files on VM1 from all the offices. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can access the shares files as quickly as possible if the Toronto branch office is inaccessible. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a Recovery Services vault and Azure Backup B. an Azure file share and Azure File Sync C. Azure blob containers and Azure File Sync D. a Recovery Services vault and Windows Server Backup Correct Answer: B Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization\\’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility, performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick cache of your Azure file share. You need an Azure file share in the same region that you want to deploy Azure File Sync. Incorrect Answers: A: Backups would be a slower solution. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide
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Braindump4it shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft MCSA 70-742 exam “Identity with Windows Server 2016” https://www.leads4pass.com/70-742.html (276 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 70-742 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) (20-25%)
Manage and Maintain AD DS (15-20%)
Create and Manage Group Policy (25-30%)
Implement Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) (10-15%)
Implement Identity Federation and Access Solutions (15-20%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam manage identities using the functionalities in Windows Server 2016. Candidates install, configure, manage, and maintain Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) as well as implement Group Policy Objects (GPOs).
Candidates should also be familiar implementing and managing Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS), Active Directory Federations Services (AD FS), Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS), and Web Application proxy.
Microsoft MCSA 70-742 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy a new Active Directory forest.
You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers.
Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each member server. Does this
meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server
retrieves data from Server2.
You create a domain user account named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP.
Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 Your company has multiple branch offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain. After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the domain. You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain. What should you do? A. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Computers container. B. Run the redircmp.exe command. C. Modify the Security settings of the technician\\’s user account. D. Add the technician to the Windows Authorization Access group. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your company has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Seattle. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domain controllers configured as shown in the following table.
The company physically relocates Server2 from the Montreal office to the Seattle office. You discover that both Server1 and Server2 authenticate users who sign in to the client computers in the Montreal office. Only Server3 authenticates users who sign in to the computers in the Seattle office. You need to ensure that Server2 authenticates the users in the Seattle office during normal network operations. What should you do? A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADReplicationSite cmdlet. B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Location Property of Server2. C. From Network Connections on Server2, modify the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) configuration. D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADDirectoryServer cmdlet. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You deploy a new Active Directory forest. You need to ensure that you can create a group Managed Service Account (gMSA) for multiple member servers. Solution: You configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the computer account of each domain controller. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP Your company implements Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS). You confirm that the company meets all the prerequisites for using Microsoft Azure Multi- Factor Authentication (MFA) and AD FS. You need to ensure that you can select MFA as the primary authentication method for AD FS. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an enterprise certification authority (CA). A user named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group. You need to ensure that you can archive keys on the CA. The solution must use Admin1 as a key recovery agent. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain has a password policy that requires at least seven characters. You create an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. and then run the following commands. redirusr OU=OU1.DC-Adatum,DC=com New-ADUser User1 You need to identity the state of User1. What should you identify? A. User1 is created in OUT, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests. B. User1 is created in the Users container, is enabled, and is a member of Domain Guests. C. User1 is created in the Users container, is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users. D. User1 is created in 0U1. is disabled, and is a member of Domain Users. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed. You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must use preauthentication whenever possible. How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Pass-through Box 2: Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS) Box 3: Pass-through The following table describes the Exchange services that you can publish through Web Application Proxy and the supported preauthentication for these services:
QUESTION 10 Your company has an office in Montreal. The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Montreal that contains all of the users accounts for the users in the Montreal office. An office manager in the Montreal office knows each user personally. You need to ensure that the office manager can provide the users with a new password if the users forget their password. What should you do? A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Montreal OU. Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO. B. From the Security settings of each user account in the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Change Password permission. C. From the Security settings of the Montreal OU, assign the office manager the Reset Password permission. D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the OU of the domain. Filter the GPO to the Montreal users. Assign the office manager the Apply Group Policy permission on the GPO. Configure the Password Policy settings of the GPO. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]. Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -ADuser User1 -UserPrincipalName [email protected]. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Your network is isolated from the Internet. The network contains computers that are members of a domain and computers that are members of a workgroup. All the computers are configured to use internal DNS servers and WINS servers for name resolution. The domain has a certification authority (CA). You run the Get-CACrlDistributionPoint cmdlet and receive the output as shown in the following exhibit.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 1,000 desktop computers and 500 laptops. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the computer accounts for the desktop computers and the laptops. You create a Windows PowerShell script named Script1.ps1 that removes temporary files and cookies. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1. You need to run the script once weekly only on the laptops. What should you do? A. In GPO1, create a File preference that uses item-level targeting. B. In GPO1, create a Scheduled Tasks preference that uses item-level targeting. C. In GPO1, configure the File System security policy. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1. D. In GPO1, add Script1.ps1 as a startup script. Attach a WMI filter to GPO1. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has a full deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You install Windows Server 2012 on a new server.
You need to ensure that you can configure the Dynamics CRM settings on Server1 from Server2 by using Windows
PowerShell.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Deployment Tools server role
B. The Developer Toolkit for Microsoft Dynamics CRM
C. The OrgDBOrgSettings tool
D. The Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You are asked to identify the benefits of performing an in-place upgrade instead of a migration that uses a new instance
of Microsoft SQL Server. Which two benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Easiest to recover if a database failure occurs
B. Minimizes hardware costs
C. Easiest to perform
D. Minimizes downtime
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your company signs an agreement with a hosting company that will host Dynamics CRM for your company.
The hosting company implements a new deployment of Dynamics CRM for your company. You need to import one of
the existing organizations to the new
deployment of Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From Deployment Manager, modify the existing organization.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a backup of the organization database.
C. From File Explorer, copy the .mdb files. D. From the Dynamics CRM web application, export the site map.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains a server named Server1.
Server1 has the following components installed:
All of the Dynamics CRM Front End Server roles
All of the Dynamics CRM Back End Server roles
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
Microsoft SQL Server
From Deployment Manager, you disable Server1.
Which two components will stop? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer service
B. Sandbox Processing Service
C. The SQL Server service
D. SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
E. Email Integration Service
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
You are planning the deployment of Microsoft SQL Server for a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015. The planned
deployment will contain a standby copy of the SQL databases in a remote data center. You need to recommend a
solution for keeping the standby databases up-to-date.
What should you recommend?
A. Database mirroring
B. AlwaysOn Availability Groups
C. File Replication Service (FRS)
D. Transaction log shipping
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. The server runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to change the user account used to start the Dynamics CRM services in the least amount of time possible.What should you use?
A. Deployment Manager
B. Add or remove programs
C. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You complete the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
You need to ensure to that users on the Internet can access the deployment.
What should you create?
A. A Kerberos delegation in Active Directory
B. A service connection point (SCP) in Active Directory
C. A zone delegation in the internal DNS zone
D. A record in the external DNS zone
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015.
You import a new organization to the deployment.
Which statement accurately describes what occurs when you import the new organization?
A. The tables from the new organization are merged into the existing organization.
B. The existing organization is removed.
C. The existing databases are removed.
D. You are prompted to upgrade to Dynamics CRM Server 2015.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing EmailUsers will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You have a server that has Dynamics CRM 2013 and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions installed.
You plan to upgrade to Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to ensure that the server uses the Dynamics CRM 2015 version of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting
Extensions.
What should you do?
A. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics
CRM 2015, and then install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions.
B. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015
Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
C. Upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015, and then perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions.
D. Perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from
Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A user named Admin1 recently installed Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to instruct Admin1 to prepare the installation to meet the following requirements:
Another user named Admin2 must be able to create an organization.
Five users must be able to manage Dynamics CRM 2015 data.
Only the required client access licenses (CALs) must be purchased.
Which three tasks should you instruct Admin1 to do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.A. From Deployment Manager, add Admin2.
B. Purchase five CALs.
C. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add Admin2.
D. From Deployment Manager, add the five users.
E. Purchase seven CALs.
F. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add the five users.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
You are evaluating the deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
All users will access the deployment from the internal network only by using several different client types.
You need to identify which client types require an Internet-facing deployment.
Which three client types should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Dynamics CRM for Android
B. Dynamics CRM for iPad
C. Dynamics CRM web application
D. Dynamics CRM for Windows Phone 8
E. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 13
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 to five internal users on the network and to five external users.
Only the internal users will create workflows. All of the users will use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to recommend which licenses must be purchased for the planned deployment. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you recommend?
A. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and one External
Connector (EC) license
B. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five Professional CALs
C. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five
Professional CALs
D. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Professional client access licenses (CALs), and one ExternalConnector (EC) license
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
is installed on a different server.
You implement an Internet-facing deployment by using the default configurations and ports. You have an organization
named CRM in a domain named
contoso.com.
You need to identify which URL users must use to access the Dynamics CRM deployment from the Internet.
Which URL should you identify?
A. http://crm.contoso.com/default.aspx
B. https://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
C. http://crm.contoso.com:443
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
E. http://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message
header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook. What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which statement correctly describes the backup and restore capabilities of Microsoft System Center 2012 for Dynamics
CRM 2015?
A. System Center 2012 can use the VSS writer to back up the Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 databases used by
Dynamics CRM 2015.
B. System Center 2012 can provide automatic failover of the Dynamics CRM 2015 databases.
C. System Center 2012 can be used to perform granular restores of individual objects in Dynamics CRM 2015.
D. System Center 2012 can be used to back up the databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015 while users are connected
to the organization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains multiple organizations.
You need to limit the number of systems jobs that can be queued for a single organization.
What should you do?
A. From the web application, modify the system settings.
B. From Deployment Manager, modify the organization settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-CRMAdvancedSettings cmdlet
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Edit-CRMOrganization cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
You have a network that contains a single IP subnet.
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server cluster that contains two SQL Server servers. You launch the setup program for
Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to configure Dynamics CRM 2015 to use the SQL Server cluster.
What should you enter on the Select SQL Server page? A. The management IP address of the SQL Server cluster
B. The IP address of one of the SQL Server servers
C. The virtual server name of the SQL Server cluster
D. The name of one of the SQL Server servers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You plan to install Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to identify which technologies will be installed automatically by the Dynamics CRM 2015 setup program.
Which two technologies should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
B. The Dynamics CRM Email Router
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
D. Microsoft .NET Framework
E. The Web Server (IIS) server role
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers. You need to identify the location of offline
Dynamics CRM data on the client computers.
Which location should you identify?
A. An Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) file
B. A Storage Space in Windows Server
C. A Microsoft SQL Server Express database
D. An Outlook Offline Data (.ost) file
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.
You need to create custom reports by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension. On which
computer should you install the extensions?
A. Computer1
B. Computer2
C. Computer3
D. Computer4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization named ORG1.
You need to create a disaster recovery plan for the deployment.
Which two databases should you include in the disaster recovery plan? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution?
A. msdb
B. mscem_config
C. master
D. org1_mscrm
E. tempdb
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
You plan to create a new Dynamics CRM 2015 organization by using the New- CRMOrganization Windows PowerShell
cmdlet.
You need to identify the required PowerShell parameters for the new organization.
Which three parameters should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. -SRSUrt
B. -BaseCurrencyCode C. -DisplayName
D. -SQLServerName
E. -BaseLanguageCode
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 25
You are planning a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that will contain two Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Two hundred users will access the deployment from the internal network. Fifty users will access the deployment from
client sites. All of the users will use
Dynamics CRM client applications.
You need to recommend the minimum number of licenses that must be purchased for the planned deployment.
How many licenses should you recommend?
A. Two server licenses and 250 client access licenses (CALs)
B. One server license and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
C. Two server licenses and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
D. Two server licenses, 200 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
E. Two server licenses, 250 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015.
You plan to use smart matching and tracking tokens.
What information in email messages do tracking tokens rely on to identify items that should be tracked?
A. An alphanumeric string generated at the end of the subject line
B. An alphanumeric string generated at the beginning of the subject line
C. The email address of the sender and the recipient
D. A token that contains an alphanumeric string that is located in the email header
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
You deploy Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to identify the maximum number of addresses that can be synchronized from a Microsoft Outlook contact to a
contact record in Dynamics CRM. How many should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
You need to identify which type of file is used to store the definition for Dynamics CRM reports. Which file type should
you identify?
A. RDL
B. VSPX
C. SQL
D. RDLX
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
You need to configure email synchronization for a Dynamics CRM 2015 user. Which record should you modify?
A. Contact
B. User
C. Account
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You plan to install a Dynamics CRM 2015 Back End Server.
You need to identify which three server roles are installed on a Back End Server.
Which three roles should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Asynchronous Processing Service
B. Discovery Web Service
C. Organization Web Service
D. Email Integration Service E. Sandbox Processing Service
F. Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer
Correct Answer: CDE
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QUESTION 1
The terms “bitmap,” “b-tree,” and “hash” refer to which type of database structure?
A. View
B. Function
C. Index
D. Stored procedure
E. Trigger
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You have a table that contains the following data.
This process is referred to as:
A. defragmentation
B. normalization
C. fragmentation
D. denormalization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You have a table that contains the following data.
Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?
A. foreiqn
B. primary
C. local
D. superkey
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which statement creates a composite key?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the
3:00 P.M. backup to your database. What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the data in a table?
A. ALLOW SELECT
B. LET READ
C. PERMIT READ
D. GRANT SELECT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You need to enable a new employee to authenticate to your database.
Which command should you use?
A. ALLOW USER
B. CREATE USER
C. ADD USER
D. INSERT USER
E. ALTER USER
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?
A. ORDER BY
B. DISTINCT
C. GROUP BY
D. UNIQUE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
You need to store product quantities, and you want to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. INTEGER
B. DOUBLE
C. COUNT
D. FLOAT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which statement will result in the creation of an index?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road
(RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL,
Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data:
You execute the following statement:
INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234, 36)
What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. VARCHAR (3, 30)
B. CHAR (3, 30)
C. VARCHAR (30)
D. CHAR (30)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
One reason to create a stored procedure is to:A. Improve performance.
B. Minimize storage space.
C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.
D. Give the user control of the query logic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table that are in the Furniture category.
You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.
After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:
A. Empty
B. Deleted
C. Unchanged
D. Archived
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:
A. User to a database.
B. Row of data to a table.
C. Table to a database.
D. Column to a table definition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
You have two tables. Each table has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Ports 20 and 21 are the default ports to secure a SQL Server.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. 1433 and 1434
C. 411 and 412
D. 67 and 68
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
You ate creating a database object named Student to store the following data:
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You develop a database to store data about textbooks. The data must be stored to process at a later time.
Which database object should you use to store the data?
A. View
B. Table
C. Function
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
First normal form requires that a database excludes repeating groups.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.B. Composite keys
C. Duplicate rows
D. Foreign keys
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
You have the following SQL query
SELECT * FROM dbo.ProAthlete WHERE Salary > 500000
The query takes too much time to return data.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
Which item should you add to the Salary column?
A. Non-null constraint
B. Default constraint
C. Index
D. Foreign key
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 27
The following graphic shows the components of a SQL Server application. You access the SQL Server application through Internet Explorer.
QUESTION 28
The following illustration shows the structure of a clustered index in a single partition:
Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Question No : 1
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a project.
For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table). For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group). What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a project purchase order?
A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group
Answer: C
Question No : 2 MB6-700 exam
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is invoiced.
Which type of project should you use?
A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals
Answer: C
Question No : 3
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?
A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: D
Question No : 4
You attach an invoice format to the project contract. Which item is controlled by the invoice format setting?
A. invoice output destination
B. invoice currency
C. invoice summarization
D. invoice orientation
Answer: C
Question No : 5
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to define?
A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet
Answer: D
Question No : 6
Which journalizing option is used only for time tracking?
A. No ledger
B. Profit and loss
C. Never ledger
D. Balance
Answer: A
Question No : 7 MB6-700 exam
You need to set up a pay when paid (PWP) term for a project. Which project type should you choose?
A. time and material
B. internal
C. cost
D. fixed-price
Answer: A
Question No : 8
You need to configure worker validation project assignments to ensure that certain projects are available for a specific worker. On which form should you configure this type of validation?
A. project
B. project contract
C. worker
D. project management and accounting parameters
Answer: C
Question No : 9
Which three items are valid project types? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Investment
B. Profit and loss
C. Time
D. Time and material
E. Quotation
Answer: A,B,E
Question No : 10
Which two statements about a header project are true? MB6-700 exam (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Transactions cannot be posted to a header project.
B. A header project is designated by the Project group field.
C. Each level of a project hierarchy can have only one project header.
D. A header project must be created at the top level of a hierarchy.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 11
You set up project management and accounting. You need to represent the types of costs and revenues
that are defined for all projects in your entire organization.
Which item should you create to organize categories?
A. shared category
B. expense category
C. project category
D. category group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You need a quick snapshot view of a project’s progress. Which form should you use?
A. Invoice control
B. Project statements
C. Cash flow
D. Cost control
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which two items are determined by the cost templates for advanced fixed-price projects? (Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the amount of hours that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
B. the amount of expenses that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
C. whether to calculate the degree of completion on the posted amount or quantity
D. the categories included in calculating the degree of completion
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You have several transactions that are not going to be invoiced. You need to ensure that these
transactions are still moved to the profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use?
A. Post costs
B. Hour journal
C. Expense journal
D. Item journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about project hierarchies are true? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. Only the parent project can be used for invoicing.
B. Subprojects must be configured with the same project type.
C. Subprojects must be configured to represent different project phases.
D. Subprojects can be used to process special accounting requirements.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
You set up an effective labor rate for a worker. The hourly cost price is 60 USD. 40 hours are available in
the work week calendar. The worker submits only 30 hours for the week.
What is the effective labor rate that is calculated for this worker?
A. (30*40)/60 = 20
B. (30/40)*60 = 45
C. (60*30)/40 = 45
D. (60*40)/30 = 80
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement about the effective labor rate (ELR) feature is true?
A. Effective labor rate is not enabled by default for all workers and can be enabled for the workers you
select.
B. Effective labor rate is enabled when a cost price amount and calendar are specified for that worker.
C. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and can be disabled for the workers you select.
D. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and cannot be disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which item is used to transfer costs from work in process (WIP) accounts to profit and loss accounts?
A. Post costs form
B. Adjustments form
C. On-account posting
D. Expense journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement for both the cost and the time project types is true?
A. Both allow registering hour transactions.
B. Both allow capitalizing on balance sheet accounts.
C. Both allow registering expense transactions.
D. Both allow posting hour transactions on profit and loss accounts.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 20
You work with a fixed-price project. To which process do the completed contract and completedpercentage assessment principles relate?
A. posting revenue
B. transferring costs from balance sheet to profit and loss accounts
C. posting costs
D. accumulating costs in balance sheet accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What is the difference between advanced and simple internal projects?
A. Advanced internal projects can track expense transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
B. Advanced internal projects can use work in process (WIP) to post costs; simple internal projects
cannot.
C. Advanced internal projects can track hour transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
D. Advanced internal projects allow on-account posting; simple internal projects do not.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
An internal project that includes work in process (WIP) is completed.
You need to ensure that the costs posted to the balance accounts from hour, expense, and item
transactions are moved back to profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use to move the costs?
A. Ledger updates
B. Ledger posting setup
C. Project groups
D. Post costs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which activity is enabled by configuring the project sort fields?
A. replacing the cost categories
B. substituting for a subproject
C. analyzing project profitability
D. allocating expenses related to the project
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 24
To which funding type can you apply payment retention?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Organization
D. Customer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which funding source type can appear only once on a project contract?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Customer
D. Organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 26
You assign resources to a project.
You need to define the scheduling requirements for the project.
Which three actions are scheduling requirements? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Setting up the calendar to use for the workers on the project
B. Specifying the estimated hourly rate for the workers on the project
C. Specifying the type of calendar for the project
D. Setting the start date and end date of the project
E. Specifying the estimated number of worker hours required to complete the project
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Before you can use the resource scheduling feature and assign workers to projects, the
following prerequisites must be met:
* The Project III license code must be enabled.
* Project parameters must be set up to define the minimum thresholds for how closely a worker’s skills and
availability should match the requirements for a project or activity. This ust be done before the worker can
be included in search results.
* (A) A worker must be assigned a calendar so that the worker’s weekly capacity in hours be specified.
To assign a calendar to a worker, use the following procedure.
1. Click Human resources > Common > Workers > Workers.
2. Select a worker, and then, on the Action Pane, in the Maintain group, click Edit.
3. In the Workerform, click the Employment link, and then, in the Calendar field, select a calendar.
* (E) Before scheduling can occur, the scheduling calendar and the total work effort (in hours) for the
project or activity must be specified.* The worker’s education, skills, certifications, project experience, and other attributes must be specified.
Reference: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 resource scheduling for projects, White Paper, Resource
scheduling prerequisites
QUESTION 27
You transfer a project quotation with a work breakdown structure to a new project.
Which three project data sets can be created during the transfer process? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Invoice proposal
B. Project budget
C. Forecast
D. Item requirements
E. Billing rules
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transfer the Confirmed project quotation into an actual project(New or existing) and then run
a wizard to create project WBS, forecasts, project budgets etc. automatically right from the quotation.
Note:
* The work breakdown structure of dynamics AX 2012 is a hierarchical representation of the activities and
child activities in a project and helps the project managers to do the following.
Define the overall work scope of the projects.
Each descending level of the hierarchy represents increasingly detailed information about the project work.
It helps identifying and creating milestones in the project.
It also helps managers to soft/hard commit resources to the activities/tasks.
Project managers can create WBS templates and use them any time they want to plan a new project. They
can also create the WBS directly on a project.
QUESTION 28
You create a project contract.
You need to include indirect costs.
Which billing rule should you select?
A. Progress
B. Unit of delivery
C. Time and material
D. Milestone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 29
You create an internal project.
You need to enable project budgeting for your project.
Which three actions are mandatory to enable budgeting for the project? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Selecting the budget overrun default
B. Setting the budget planning configurationC. Enabling budget tracking
D. Setting the budget control configuration
E. Setting the transaction type
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DE: Budget control can be setup on the transactions that you desire to put in budget controls on. The
Budget control configuration allows you to select through check boxes which transactions types you want
to enable budget control on.
QUESTION 30
Why would you create an estimate?
A. To set a project’s budget
B. To create an hours forecast
C. To define the forecast model
D. To monitor a project’s progress
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-342
Total Questions: 180 Q&As
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Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).
QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device
QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account. 70-342 dumps
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.
QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.
QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online
QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.
QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.
QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.
QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. 70-342 dumps
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.
QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server
Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required)
Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration
QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages.
The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.
QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Use the Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet to test the operation of a Mailbox server computer running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service.
Two diagnostic tests are designed to test the operation of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server software (mode 1) and the operation of the whole system that includes the connected telephony components (mode 2).
The Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet can be used to test the operation of a Mailbox server and related connected telephony equipment. When you run this cmdlet and include the UMIPGateway parameter, the Mailbox server tests the full end-toend operation of the Unified Messaging system. This test includes the telephony components connected to the Mailbox server, such as IP gateways, Private Branch eXchanges (PBXs), and cabling. If the UMIPGateway parameter isn’t specified, the Mailbox server tests only the operation of the Unified Messaging components that are installed and configured on the server.
Incorrect:
Not B: Test-CsExUMConnectivity
Verifies that a test user can connect to Exchange Unified Messaging. This cmdlet was introduced in Lync Server 2013.
Not C: Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
Use the Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow cmdlet to test call flow between Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service, Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service, VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servers and Microsoft Lync Server.
QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
Retention policy tags can be created for these Folders:
* Calendar
This default folder is used to store meetings and appointments.
* Inbox
This default folder is used to store messages delivered to a mailbox.
* Notes
This folder contains notes created by users in Outlook. These notes are also visible in Outlook Web App.
* Tasks
This default folder is used to store tasks.
Etc.
Reference: Retention tags and retention policies
QUESTION 15
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013.
Note:
A hybrid deployment offers organizations the ability to extend the feature-rich experience and administrative control they have with their existing on-premises Microsoft Exchange organization to the cloud. A hybrid deployment provides the seamless look and feel of a single Exchange organization between an on- premises Exchange Server 2013 organization and Exchange Online in Microsoft Office 365. In addition, a hybrid deployment can serve as an intermediate step to moving completely to an Exchange Online organization.
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