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QUESTION 1 Which of the following devices is used to implement network security policies for an environment? A. Firewall B. managed switch C. Repeater D. Gateway Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is a common use tor NAT? A. Automatically assigning network addresses B. Hiding the network portion of an IPv4 address C. Connecting multiple devices through a single public IP address D. Resolving alphanumeric names to addresses Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A technician creates a VM in a public cloud to test a new application and then deletes the VM when finished. Which of Does the following BEST describe this type of cloud environment? A. Community B. Elastic C. Hybrid D. On-demand Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A technician is building a CAD workstation for a user who will be saving files remotely. Which of the following components are MOST important to include when configuring the system? (Choose two.) A. Gigabit NIC B. Graphics card C. Liquid cooling unit D. HDD size E. RAM Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is the main purpose of the +5VSB output of a power supply? A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off B. It provides power to the audio and soundboards of the machine C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A developer downloaded and installed a new VM on a hypervisor to test a piece of software following the release of an OS patch. After installing the VM. the developer is unable to download updates from the vendor. Which of the following should the developer check? A. The hypervisor\\’s security configurations B. The organization\\’s security policies C. The guest OS network settings D. The resource requirements Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 A user\\’s smartphone has been slow recently. A technician sees the phone was purchased two months ago, and it is top of the line. About a month ago, a new OS update was installed. To address the issue, the technician runs a hardware diagnostic on the device and it reports no problems. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the performance issue on the device? A. Too many applications are running updates B. The device is currently running in airplane mode C. The internal memory is failing on the device D. The OS update is too resource-intensive for the device Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Joe, a user, reports that his new smart wearable device is not synchronizing to his mobile device. Both devices are powered on, but the mobile device fails to read the data from the wearable. Which of the following will MOST likely fix this issue? A. Pair the devices B. Set the SSID C. Update the smart wearable device firmware D. Enable NFC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A technician is troubleshooting a network that is experiencing inconsistent connections through one of the network drops in the board room. The technician wants to verify the integrity of the network run but needs to identify which cable comes from the board room. However, none of the network connections in the network room are labeled. Which of the following are the BEST tools for the technician to use to identify the correct network run to troubleshoot? (Choose two.) A. Cable stripper B. Cable tester C. Tone generator D. WiFi analyzer E. Multimeter F. Probe Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10 An end-user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected? A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port. B. Use the Fn and function key combination C. Adjust the monitor display settings. D. Enable DisplayPort. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A technician wants the number of virtual machines hosting a web application in the public cloud environment to scale based on real-time traffic on the website. Which of the following should the technician configure? A. Resource pooling B. Rapid elasticity C. Measured service D. High availability Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Ann, a customer, purchased a pedometer and created an account on the manufacturer\\’s website to keep track of her progress. Which of the following technologies will Ann MOST likely use to connect the pedometer to her desktop lo transfer her information to the website? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. NFC D. Tethering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A laptop is connected to a conference room projector in extended display mode. The desktop icons appear normal on the laptop but are disproportionate and illegible on the projector screen. Which of the following should the technician check? A. Video resolution B. HDMI connection C. Keystone D. Focus Correct Answer: A
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The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security. The CASP+ exam covers the following:
Enterprise security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques and requirements
More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyberdefense needs to meet business goals
Expanding security control topics to include mobile and small-form-factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as blockchain, cryptocurrency and mobile device encryption
Latest updates CompTIA CAS-003 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the website? A. Anti-spam software B. Application sandboxing C. Data loss prevention D. Input validation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web server log: 10.235.62.11 ?- [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET /site/script.php?user=admiand;pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200 5724 Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented by the developer? A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and the developer should strip all nonprintable characters. B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the browser side. C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input validation. D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should ensure strong passwords are enforced. Correct Answer: C The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code `1=1\\’ will always provide a value of true. This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table. In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
QUESTION 3 An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the need to sanitize the client data? A. Data aggregation B. Data sovereignty C. Data isolation D. Data volume E. Data analytics Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically destroyed. Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address? A. Sovereignty B. E-waste C. Remanence D. Deduplication Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product- related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be used once or not at all. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access. With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes. Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker. No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap. Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant risk. Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to certain windows. The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.
QUESTION 6 A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application. The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select TWO). A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation D. Use AES with cipher text padding E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV F. Use AES in Counter mode Correct Answer: EF In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between segments of the encrypted message. Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce. AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by encrypting successive values of a “counter”. The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.
QUESTION 7 Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base. This purchase includes several offices in different countries. To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee activity may be monitored and reviewed. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this practice? A. The excessive time it will take to merge the company\\’s information systems. B. Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements. C. Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews. D. The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 A user on a virtual machine downloads a large file using a popular peer-to-peer torrent program. The user is unable to execute the program on their VM. A security administrator scans the VM and detects a virus in the program. The administrator reviews the hypervisor logs and correlates several access attempts to the time of execution of the virus. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior? A. The hypervisor host does not have hardware acceleration enabled and does not allow DEP. B. The virus scanner on the VM changes file extensions of all programs downloaded via P2P to prevent execution. C. The virtual machine is configured to require administrator rights to execute all programs. D. The virus is trying to access a virtual device which the hypervisor is configured to restrict. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 During an incident involving the company main database, a team of forensics experts is hired to respond to the breach. The team is in charge of collecting forensics evidence from the company\\’s database server. Which of the following is the correct order in which the forensics team should engage? A. Notify senior management, secure the scene, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, implement chain of custody, and analyze original media. B. Take inventory, secure the scene, capture RAM, capture hard drive, implement chain of custody, document, and analyze the data. C. Implement chain of custody, take inventory, secure the scene, capture volatile and non-volatile storage, and document the findings. CAS-003 VCE Dumps | CAS-003 Practice Test | CAS-003 Braindumps 7 / 10https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-003.html 2019 Latest lead4pass CAS-003 PDF and VCE dumps Download D. Secure the scene, take inventory, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, document, and implement chain of custody. Correct Answer: D The scene has to be secured first to prevent contamination. Once a forensic copy has been created, an analyst will begin the process of moving from most volatile to least volatile information. The chain of custody helps to protect the integrity and reliability of the evidence by keeping an evidence log that shows all access to evidence, from collection to appearance in court.
QUESTION 10 A manufacturing company is having issues with unauthorized access and modification of the controls operating the production equipment. A communication requirement is to allow the free flow of data between all network segments at the site. Which of the following BEST remediates the issue? A. Implement SCADA security measures. B. Implement NIPS to prevent the unauthorized activity. C. Implement an AAA solution. D. Implement a firewall to restrict access to only a single management station. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A security architect is seeking to outsource company server resources to a commercial cloud service provider. The provider under consideration has a reputation for poorly controlling physical access to datacenters and has been the victim of multiple social engineering attacks. The service provider regularly assigns VMs from multiple clients to the same physical resources. When conducting the final risk assessment which of the following should the security architect take into consideration? A. The ability to implement user training programs for the purpose of educating internal staff about the dangers of social engineering. B. The cost of resources required to relocate services in the event of resource exhaustion on a particular VM. C. The likelihood a malicious user will obtain proprietary information by gaining local access to the hypervisor platform. D. Annual loss expectancy resulting from social engineering attacks against the cloud service provider affecting corporate network infrastructure. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Company A is purchasing Company B, and will import all of Company B\\’s users into its authentication system. Company A uses 802.1x with a RADIUS server, while Company B uses a captive SSL portal with an LDAP backend. Which of the following is the BEST way to integrate these two networks? A. Enable RADIUS and end point security on Company B\\’s network devices. B. Enable LDAP authentication on Company A\\’s network devices. C. Enable LDAP/TLS authentication on Company A\\’s network devices. D. Enable 802.1x on Company B\\’s network devices. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\\’s guest WiFi network which is isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO). A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas. B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss. C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data. D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes. E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable. Correct Answer: AD Privacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor\\’s personal device. This can then be shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor\\’s personal device could have malware on it.
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QUESTION 1
A project manager is entering the list of a project’s activities with their estimated begin and end time to visualize which activities overlap and when the project is scheduled to end. Which of the following is the project manager building?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Critical PathD. PERT chart
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
The project manager is sequencing a set of activities. They discover that some of the activities may or may not occur based on the outcome of other activities. Which of the following is BEST suited in this situation to show the activities’ logical relationship?
A. Gantt
B. ADM
C. CCB
D. CCM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the PK0-003 exam MAIN difference between bottom up and top down cost estimation?
A. Bottom up leads to a more accurate cost estimate than top down because it is performed by subject matter experts
B. Top down leads to a more accurate cost estimate because it is performed by upper management with direct access to budget information
C. Bottom up leads to a less accurate cost estimate because it is breaks down the task into smaller subtasks where some tasks may not have a cost
D. Both top down and bottom up are equally accurate estimation of a project’s total cost because they both refer to resources assigned by the project sponsor
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following purchasing processes should a project team use to ensure that the work will be done per company specifications, while selecting the overall cheapest provider?
A. RFI
B. RFP
C. RFC
D. RFQ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
One of the MAIN purposes of a kick-off meeting is to:
A. Assign and review roles and responsibilities to the project team.
B. Allow the project sponsor to introduce the project manager to the team.
C. Review the project definition document and make the appropriate changes.
D. Ensure project team members communicate amongst each others.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
After the ground breaking at a new construction site, the pile driving operation comes to PK0-003 vce a full stop due to the nature of the terrain. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur?
A. The project communication plan must be updated and a stakeholder meeting must be scheduled.
B. The project manager must manage the new issue as the project schedule could be delayed.
C. The project manager must implement conflict resolution and review the resource requirement.D. The project scope statement must be reviewed and the project manager must prepare a performance report.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
A new software solution is being deployed. The customer realizes that an important piece of the software must be purchased in order for the project to be successful. Which of the following is TRUE about this scenario?
A. The new piece of software will most likely expand the scope of the project therefore a new scope statement must be written.
B. The current project must be completed and a new project can be started to implement the additional software.
C. Quality management metrics are affected therefore the project manager should review the quality of the project.
D. Project schedule may be affected and the project manager must follow the change control process.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
While performing a scheduled PK0-003 walkthrough at a construction site, the customer points out a discrepancy.
Which of the following is the FIRST step that should be taken before submitting a change control form?
A. Consult the project sponsor
B. Identify the change
C. Perform a feasibility study
D. Perform impact analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A project team member has identified a required change to PK0-003 pdf one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Additional company employees have been assigned to the project. Which of the following will be affected?
A. The timeline may be positively affected at the expense of the project cost.
B. This change does not affect the triple constraint because the additional employees are already on the company payroll.
C. The quality of the product will improve but it will add more time to the project to train the new employees.
D. Total project cost will be reduced because the project can now be completed sooner.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they PK0-003 allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. CrashingB. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The project manager is reviewing the Pareto chart to identify if the life cycle of a deliverable is producing software bugs. Which of the following are represented in the chart? (Select TWO).
A. Number of work units affected by the bug
B. Percentage of bug types occurring
C. Software bug counts
D. Root cause of bug occurrence
E. Affect of the bug occurrence
Correct Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1
A desktop computer is exhibiting artifacts on the screen after prolonged use. A technician has already updated the video drivers and ran all operating system updates.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this?
A. Defective cabling
B. Outdated system BIOS
C. Incorrect GPU firmware
D. Overheating GPU
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to 220-801 pdf be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA
D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3
A user wants to store a personal video to view at a later time. Which of the following types of media is the LEAST expensive with a maximum capacity of 750MB?
A. USB drive
B. DVD-R
C. Blu-Ray
D. CD-R
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
A user is asking for recommendations on 220-801 dumps building a PC that will primarily be used for gaming. Which of the following should the technician recommend? (Select TWO).
A. 7.1 sound card
B. CAD video card
C. Virtualization support
D. Thunderbolt expansion cards
E. RAID controller
F. High-end video card
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 5
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the 220-801 power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?A. Low voltage power supply
B. Failing magnetic hard drive
C. Corrupted Solid State Drive
D. Overheated RAM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Ann, a business traveler, calls her company’s help desk reporting that she cannot connect to the hotel’s Internet. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step the 220-801 vce help desk technician should advise?
A. Verify WiFi is enabled
B. Check the proxy settings
C. Contact the hotel’s front desk
D. Boot into Safe Mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A computer will not load Windows and displays the 220-801 examerror message “Operating system not found”. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. bootrec
B. diskpart
C. format
D. sfc
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following bash option CompTIA LX0-103 pdf will prevent an administrator from overwriting a file with a “>”?
A. set -o safe
B. set -o noglob
C. set -o noclobber
D. set -o append
E. set -o nooverwrite
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
All of the following are Mail Transport Agents EXCEPT:
A. exim
B. postfix
C. sendmail
D. qmail
E. mail
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to LX0-103 perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
In the following command and its output, echo $$ 12942 which of the following is 12942?
A. The process ID of the echo command.
B. The process ID of the current shell.
C. The process ID of the last command executed.
D. The process ID of the last backgrounded command.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands will print the LX0-103 exam exit value of the previous command to the screen in bash?
A. echo $?
B. echo $#
C. echo $exit
D. echo $status
E. echo $&}
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements about crontab are true? (Select TWO).
A. Every user may have their owncrontab.
B. Changing a crontab requires a reload/restart of the cron daemon.
C. The cron daemon reloads crontab files automatically when necessary.
D. hourly is the same as “0 * * * *”.
E. A cron daemon must run for each existing crontab.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands is used to LX0-103 deactivate a network interface?
A. ifdown
B. ipdown
C. net
D. netdown
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following looks like a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomainlocalhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhostlocalhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomainlocalhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which of the following lines would an administrator find in the LX0-103 vce file /etc/resolv.conf?
A. order hosts, bind
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files, dns
D. domain mycompany.com
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following find commands will print out a list of suid root files in /usr?
A. find /usr -uid 0 -perm +4000
B. find -user root +mode +s /usr
C. find -type suid -username root -d /usr
D. find /usr -ls \*s\* -u root
E. find /usr -suid -perm +4000
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the LX0-103 following commands will provide locale-specific information about a system and its environment?
A. loconfig
B. getlocale
C. locale
D. tzconfig
E. tzselect
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which of the following should the permission settings be for /etc/passwd and /etc/shadow?
A. /etc/passwD. -rw-r–r– /etc/shadow: -r——–
B. /etc/passwD. -r——– /etc/shadow: -rw-r–r–
C. /etc/passwD. -rw-r–r– /etc/shadow: -rw-r–r–
D. /etc/passwD. -r——– /etc/shadow: -r——–}
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to set default shell variables for all users?
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~default/.bash_profile
D. /etc/skel/.bashrc
E. /etc/skel/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Suppose that the LX0-103 dumps command netstat -a hangs for a long time without producing output. An administrator might suspect:
A. A problem with NFS
B. A problem with DNS
C. A problem with NIS
D. A problem with routing
E. That the netstat daemon has crashed
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements are true regarding the below syslog.conf configuration directive? (Select THREE) *.err;kern.notice;auth.notice /dev/console
A. Severity crit messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console
B. Severity notice messages from the auth facility will be directed to /dev/console
C. Severity notice messages from the kern facility will be directed to /dev/console
D. Severity err messages from the mail facility will be directed /dev/console
E. Severity notice messages from all facilities will be directed to /dev/console
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 16
On a system running the K Display Manager, when is the /etc/kde4/kdm/Xreset script automatically executed?
A. When KDM starts
B. When a user’s X session exists
C. When KDM crashes
D. When X is restarted
E. When X crashes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the LX0-103 BEST way to temporarily suspend a user’s ability to interactively login?
A. Changing the user’s UID.
B. Changing the user’s password.
C. Changing the user’s shell to /bin/false.
D. Removing the user’s entry in /etc/passwd.
E. Placing the command logout in the user’s profile.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
To test a shell script called myscript, the environment variable FOOBAR must be removed temporarily. How can this be done?
A. unset -v FOOBAR
B. set -a FOOBAR=””
C. env -u FOOBAR myscript
D. env -i FOOBAR myscript
Correct Answer: C
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