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Where to get the latest CompTIA DA0-001 exam questions and answers

Posted by admin on November 29, 2024 in CompTIA, CompTIA Data+, DA0-001 exam, DA0-001 exam materials, DA0-001 exam questions, DA0-001 online practice

It’s not difficult to find free CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions now! You may already know that there are many free exam questions that can be found through search engines, but you also know that they are just outdated content and will not be of much help to your actual exam.

The truly practical and effective CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions must be protected. You can find the truly protected CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions and answers on Pass4itsure.

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CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions online practice test

From	Number of exam questions	Related
Pass4itsure	15 (Free)	CompTIA A+

Question 1:

Which of the ing is the correct ion for a tab-delimited spre file?

A. tap

B. tar

C. sv

D. az

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A tab-delimited spreadsheet file is a type of flat text file that uses tabs as delimiters to separate data values in a table. The file extension for a tab-delimited spreadsheet file is usually .tsv, which stands for tab-separated values.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

References: [Tab-separated values – Wikipedia], [What is a TSV File? | How to Open, Edit and Convert TSV Files]

Question 2:

Which of the following best describes the law of large numbers?

A. As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population.

B. As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population

C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.

D. When a sample size doubles. the sample is indicative of the whole population.

Correct Answer: B

The best answer is B.

As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population. The law of large numbers, in probability and statistics, states that as a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.

This is due to the sample being more representative of the population as it increases in size. The law of large numbers guarantees stable long-term results for the averages of some random events1 A.

As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it confuses the concepts of standard deviation and mean. Standard deviation is a measure of how much the values in a data set vary from the mean, not how close the mean is to the population average.

Also, as a sample size decreases, its standard deviation tends to increase, not decrease, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.

C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it contradicts the law of large numbers. As a sample size decreases, its mean tends to deviate from the average of the whole population, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.

D. When a sample size doubles, the sample is indicative of the whole population is not correct, because it does not specify how close the sample mean is to the population average. Doubling the sample size does not necessarily make the sample indicative of the whole population, unless the sample size is large enough to begin with.

The law of large numbers does not state a specific number or proportion of samples that are indicative of the whole population, but rather describes how the sample mean approaches the population average as the sample size increases indefinitely.

Question 3:

A recurring event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations. A data analyst notices the event is being logged three hours earlier in one database than in the other database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The data analyst is not querying the databases correctly.

B. The databases are recording different events.

C. The databases are recording the event in different time zones.

D. The second database is logging incorrectly.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the issue is that the databases are recording the event in different time zones. A time zone is a region that observes a uniform standard time for legal, commercial, and social purposes. Different time zones have different offsets from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), which is the primary time standard by which the world regulates clocks and time.

For example, UTC-5 is five hours behind UTC, while UTC+3 is three hours ahead of UTC. If an event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations with different time zones, it may appear that the event is being logged at different times, depending on how the databases handle the time zone conversion.

For example, if one database records the event in UTC-5 and another database records the event in UTC+3, then an event that occurs at 12:00 PM in UTC-5 will appear as 9:00 AM in UTC+3. The other options are not likely causes of the issue, as they are either unrelated or implausible.

The data analyst is not querying the databases incorrectly, as this would not affect the time stamps of the events.

The databases are not recording different events, as they are supposed to record the same recurring event. The second database is not logging incorrectly, as there is no evidence or reason to assume that.

Reference: [Time zone – Wikipedia]

Question 4:

Consider the following dataset which contains information about houses that are for sale:

Which of the following string manipulation commands will combine the address and region name columns to create a full address?

full_address————————- 85 Turner St, Northern Metropolitan 25 Bloomburg St, Northern Metropolitan 5 Charles St, Northern Metropolitan 40 Federation La, Northern Metropolitan 55a Park St, Northern Metropolitan

A. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

B. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’-\’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

C. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’ , \’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5

D. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’-\’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

Correct Answer: A

The correct answer is A:

SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

String manipulation (or string handling) is the process of changing, parsing, splicing, pasting, or analyzing strings. SQL is used for managing data in a relational database.

The CONCAT () function adds two or more strings together. Syntax CONCAT(stringl, string2,… string_n) Parameter Values Parameter Description stringl, string2, string_n Required. The strings to add together.

Question 5:

While reviewing survey data, an analyst notices respondents entered “Jan,” “January,” and “01” as responses for the month of January. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure data consistency?

A. Delete any of the responses that do not have “January” written out.

B. Replace any of the responses that have “01”.

C. Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”.

D. Sort any of the responses that say “Jan” and update them to “01”.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”. This is because filtering and updating are data cleansing techniques that can be used to ensure data consistency, which means that the data is uniform and follows a standard format.

By filtering on any of the responses that do not say “January” and updating them to “January”, the analyst can make sure that all the responses for the month of January are written in the same way. The other steps are not appropriate for ensuring data consistency.

Here is why:

Deleting any of the responses that do not have “January” written out would result in data loss, which means that some information would be missing from the data set. This could affect the accuracy and reliability of the analysis.

Replacing any of the responses that have “01” would not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “Jan” and “January”. This could cause confusion and errors in the analysis.

Sorting any of the responses that say “Jan” and updating them to “01” would also not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “01” and “January”. This could also cause confusion and errors in the analysis.

Question 6:

Jhon is working on an ELT process that sources data from six different source systems.

Looking at the source data, he finds that data about the sample people exists in two of six systems.

What does he have to make sure he checks for in his ELT process?

Choose the best answer.

A. Duplicate Data.

B. Redundant Data.

C. Invalid Data.

D. Missing Data.

Correct Answer: C

Duplicate Data.

While invalid, redundant, or missing data are all valid concerns, data about people exists in two of the six systems. As such, Jhon needs to account for duplicate data issues.

Question 7:

Given the following customer and order tables:

Which of the following describes the number of rows and columns of data that would be present after performing an INNER JOIN of the tables?

A. Five rows, eight columns

B. Seven rows, eight columns

C. Eight rows, seven columns

D. Nine rows, five columns

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: This is because an INNER JOIN is a type of join that combines two tables based on a matching condition and returns only the rows that satisfy the condition. An INNER JOIN can be used to merge data from different tables that have a common column or a key, such as customer ID or order ID. To perform an INNER JOIN of the customer and order tables, we can use the following SQL statement:

This statement will select all the columns (*) from both tables and join them on the customer ID column, which is the common column between them. The result of this statement will be a new table that has seven rows and eight columns, as shown below:

The reason why there are seven rows and eight columns in the result table is because:

There are seven rows because there are six customers and six orders in the original tables, but only five customers have matching orders based on the customer ID column.

Therefore, only five rows will have data from both tables, while one row will have data only from the customer table (customer 5), and one row will have no data at all (null values).

There are eight columns because there are four columns in each of the original tables, and all of them are selected and joined in the result table.

Therefore, the result table will have four columns from the customer table (customer ID, first name, last name, and email) and four columns from the order table (order ID, order date, product, and quantity).

Question 8:

Different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database. Which of the following issues will MOST likely arise with this data? (Choose two.)

A. Data accuracy

B. Data constraints

C. Data attribute limitations

D. Data bias

E. Data consistency

F. Data manipulation

Correct Answer: AE

Data accuracy refers to the extent to which the data is correct, reliable, and free of errors. When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of human error, such as typos, misinterpretations, omissions, or duplications.

These errors can affect the quality and validity of the data and lead to incorrect or misleading analysis and decisions.

Data consistency refers to the extent to which the data is uniform and compatible across different sources, formats, and systems.

When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of inconsistency, such as different spellings, abbreviations, formats, or standards. These inconsistencies can affect the integration and comparison of the data and lead to confusion or conflicts.

Therefore, to ensure data quality, it is important to have clear and consistent rules and procedures for data entry, validation, and verification. It is also advisable to use automated tools or methods to reduce human error and inconsistency.

Question 9:

A sales analyst needs to report how the sales team is performing to target. Which of the following files will be important in determining 2019 performance attainment?

A. 2018 goal data

B. 2018 actual revenue

C. 2019 goal data

D. 2019 commission plan

Correct Answer: C

Answer:

C. 2019 goal data To report how the sales team is performing to target, the sales analyst needs to compare the actual sales revenue with the expected or planned sales revenue for the same period. The 2019 goal data is the file that contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019, which is the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve. By comparing the 2019 goal data with the 2019 actual revenue, the sales analyst can calculate the performance attainment, which is the percentage of the goal that was met by the sales team.

Option A is incorrect, as 2018 goal data is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 goal data contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve in 2019.

Option B is incorrect, as 2018 actual revenue is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 actual revenue contains the actual sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not comparable with the 2019 goal data or the 2019 actual revenue.

Option D is incorrect, as 2019 commission plan is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2019 commission plan contains the rules and rates for calculating and paying commissions to the sales team based on their performance attainment, but it does not contain the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019.

Question 10:

An analyst needs to join two tables of data together for analysis. All the names and cities in the first table should be joined with the corresponding ages in the second table, if applicable.

Which of the following is the correct join the analyst should complete. and how many total rows will be in one table?

A. INNER JOIN, two rows

B. LEFT JOIN. four rows

C. RIGHT JOIN. five rows

D. OUTER JOIN, seven rows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The correct join the analyst should complete is B. LEFT JOIN, four rows. A LEFT JOIN is a type of SQL join that returns all the rows from the left table, and the matched rows from the right table. If there is no match, the right table will have null values. A LEFT JOIN is useful when we want to preserve the data from the left table, even if there is no corresponding data in the right table1 Using the example tables, a LEFT JOIN query would look like this:

SELECT t1.Name, t1.City, t2.Age FROM Table1 t1 LEFT JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.Name = t2.Name;

The result of this query would be:

Name City Age Jane Smith Detroit NULL John Smith Dallas 34 Candace Johnson Atlanta 45 Kyle Jacobs Chicago 39

As you can see, the query returns four rows, one for each name in Table1. The name John Smith appears twice in Table2, but only one of them is matched with the name in Table1. The name Jane Smith does not appear in Table2, so the age column has a null value for that row.

Question 11:

Which of the following are reasons to create and maintain a data dictionary? (Choose two.)

A. To improve data acquisition

B. To remember specifics about data fields

C. To specify user groups for databases

D. To provide continuity through personnel turnover

E. To confine breaches of PHI data

F. To reduce processing power requirements

Correct Answer: BD

A data dictionary is a collection of metadata that describes the data elements in a database or dataset. It can help improve data acquisition by providing information about the data sources, formats, quality, and usage. It can also help remember specifics about data fields, such as their names, definitions, types, sizes, and relationships.

Therefore, options B and D are correct.

Option A is incorrect because it is not a reason to create and maintain a data dictionary, but a benefit of doing so.

Option C is incorrect because specifying user groups for databases is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a database management system or a security policy.

Option E is incorrect because confining breaches of PHI data is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data protection or encryption system.

Option F is incorrect because reducing processing power requirements is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data compression or optimization system.

Question 12:

Given the following:

Which of the following is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis?

A. Fill in the missing cost where it is null.

B. Separate the table into two tables and create a primary key

C. Replace the extended cost field with a calculated field.

D. Correct the dates so they have the same format.

Correct Answer: D

Correcting the dates so they have the same format is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis. Trend analysis is a method of analyzing data over time to identify patterns, changes, or relationships. To perform a trend analysis, the data needs to have a consistent and comparable format, especially for the date or time variables.

In the example, the date purchased column has two different formats: YYYY-MM-DD and MM/DD/YYYY. This could cause errors or confusion when sorting, filtering, or plotting the data over time.

Therefore, the analyst should correct the dates so they have the same format, such as YYYY-MM-DD, which is a standard and unambiguous format.

Question 13:

Which of the following are reasons to conduct data cleansing? (Select two).

A. To perform web scraping

B. To track KPls

C. To improve accuracy

D. To review data sets

E. To increase the sample size

F. To calculate trends

Correct Answer: CF

Two reasons to conduct data cleansing are:

To improve accuracy:

Data cleansing helps to ensure that the data is correct, consistent, and reliable. This can improve the quality and validity of the analysis, as well as the decision-making and outcomes based on the data12 To calculate trends:

Data cleansing helps to remove or resolve any errors, outliers, or missing values that could distort or skew the data. This can help to identify and measure the patterns, changes, or relationships in the data over time13

Question 14:

Joseph is interpreting a left skewed distribution of test scores. Joe scored at the mean, Alfonso scored at the median, and gaby scored and the end of the tail.

Who had the highest score?

A. Joseph

B. Joe

C. Alfonso

D. Gaby

Correct Answer: C

Alfonso had the highest score. A left skewed distribution is a distribution where the tail is longer on the left side than on the right side, meaning that most of the values are clustered on the right side and there are some outliers on the left side.

In a left skewed distribution, the mean is less than the median, which is less than the mode.

Therefore, Joseph, who scored at the mean, had the lowest score, Gaby, who scored at the end of the tail, had the second lowest score, and Alfonso, who scored at the median, had the highest score.

Reference: Skewness – Statistics How To

Question 15:

Kelly wants to get feedback on the final draft of a strategic report that has taken her six months to develop.

What can she do to get prevent confusion as see seeks feedback before publishing the report?

Choose the best answer.

A. Distribute the report to the appropriate stakeholders via email.

B. Use a watermark to identify the report as a draft.

C. Show the report to her immediate supervisor.

D. Publish the report on an internally facing website.

Correct Answer: B

The best answer is to use a watermark to identify the report as a draft. A watermark is a faint image or text that appears behind the content of a document, indicating its status or ownership. By using a watermark, Kelly can clearly communicate that the report is not final and still subject to changes or feedback.

This can prevent confusion among the readers and avoid any misuse or misinterpretation of the report. The other options are not as effective as using a watermark, as they either do not indicate the status of the report or do not reach the appropriate stakeholders.

Distributing the report via email or publishing it on an internally facing website may not make it clear that the report is a draft and may cause confusion or errors. Showing the report to her immediate supervisor may not get enough feedback from other relevant stakeholders who may have different perspectives or insights.

Reference: How to Add a Watermark in Microsoft Word – Lifewire

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CompTIA CAS-004 Exam 2024 (CASP+)

Posted by admin on July 9, 2024 in CASP+ cas-004 dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam questions, CompTIA, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps

I checked a lot of information but no more free materials related to the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam in 2024.

Is it because there is no market for CASP+?

Or is everyone no longer willing to share the CASP+ exam?

According to my observation, more people go to landing sale sites to look for free content, and fewer and fewer people blog. Google has lowered the ranking of WordPress blogs, so everyone doesn’t know that there are still many good articles in blogs.

Table of contents:

What is the CASP+ Cybersecurity Exam?

How to pass the CASP+ CAS-004 exam?

CAS-004 exam questions

CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Requirements

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without experience?

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without a degree?

What can CompTIA CASP+ do?

How to Update CompTIA CASP+ 004 Exam Certificate?

What is the CASP+ Cybersecurity Exam?

The CASP+ network security exam is an advanced Network security certificate aimed at enterprise network security and for future security architects and senior security engineers.

There are many such certifications, such as GIAC, CISA, CISSP, CEH, GCIH, etc. It is recommended that you read “Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications“

How to pass the CASP+ CAS-004 exam?

There are many answers to this question. Some people say that to ensure a good mentality, the premise is that you have made the necessary preparations for the exam. My answer is not to magnify those small things too much. What you need to prepare for is to prepare for everything. Get the questions right and enhance your real-world experience through extensive simulation exercises, learn about each question type and answering methods, such as multiple-choice questions, multiple-choice questions, and drag-and-drop activities, as well as the ability to solve problems in a simulated environment.

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024

Number of exam questions	Share the number of exam questions online	Material Center	Certification project
600 Q&A	15 Q&A	Leads4Pass	CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

Question 1:

Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts partial responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?

A. laaS

B. SaaS

C. FaaS

D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.

The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.

B. a zero-day attack.

C. an advanced persistent threat.

D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.internetsociety.org/deploy360/tls/basics/

Question 3:

Before a risk assessment inspection, the Chief Information Officer tasked the systems administrator with analyzing and reporting any configuration issues on the information systems and then verifying existing security settings. Which of the following would be BEST to use?

A. SCAP

B. CVSS

C. XCCDF

D. CMDB

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

An HVAC contractor requested network connectivity permission to remotely support/troubleshoot equipment issues at a company location. Currently, the company does not have a process that allows vendors remote access to the corporate network.

Which of the following solutions represents the BEST course of action to allow the contractor access?

A. Add the vendor\’s equipment to the existing network Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN

B. Give the vendor a standard desktop PC to attach the equipment to Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN

C. Establish a certification process for the vendor Allow certified vendors access to the VDI to monitor and maintain the HVAC equipment

D. Create a dedicated segment with no access to the corporate network Implement dedicated VPN hardware for vendor access

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

SIMULATION

A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:

The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.

The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen to port 4022.

The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a single workstation.

All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.

All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight days.

All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.

Cleartext services are not allowed.

All devices must be hardened when possible.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.

Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the PostgreSQL database via SSH.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-1

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-2

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-3

A. Check the answer in the explanation below.

B. PlaceHolder

C. PlaceHolder

D. PlaceHolder

Correct Answer: A

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-4

Question 6:

An organization is preparing to migrate its production environment systems from an on-premises environment to a cloud service. The lead security architect is concerned that the organization\’s current methods for addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud environment.

Which of the following BEST describes the reason why traditional methods of addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud?

A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risks.

B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk.

C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider.

D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated.

Correct Answer: C

A makes no sense since the CSP isn’t the data owner

B: Cloud providers could avoid the risk via contract

C: Cloud migrations are always a shared risk responsibility but ultimately the data owner/user has the most risk because they have the most to lose.

D: You can mitigate risks with technical and administrative controls in both cloud and on-premises

Question 7:

A financial institution generates a list of newly created accounts and sensitive information daily. The financial institution then sends out a file containing thousands of lines of data. Which of the following would be the best way to reduce the risk of a malicious insider making changes to the file that could go undetected?

A. Write an SIEM rule that generates a critical alert when files are created on the application server.

B. Implement an FIM that automatically generates alerts when the file is accessed by IP addresses that are not associated with the application.

C. Create a script that compares the size of the file on an hourly basis and generates alerts when changes are identified.

D. Tune the rules on the host-based IDS for the application server to trigger automated alerts when the application server is accessed from the internet.

Correct Answer: B

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a technology that can detect changes in files, often used to safeguard critical data. Implementing an FIM solution that generates alerts for access by unauthorized IP addresses would ensure that any unauthorized modifications to the file can be detected and acted upon. This helps in mitigating the risk of insider threats, as it would alert to any changes not made through the expected application process.

Question 8:

A company with multiple locations has taken a cloud-only approach to its infrastructure The company does not have standard vendors or systems resulting in a mix of various solutions put in place by each location The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure that the internal security team has visibility into all platforms Which of the following best meets this objective?

A. Security information and event management

B. Cloud security posture management

C. SNMFV2 monitoring and log aggregation

D. Managed detection and response services from a third-party

Correct Answer: A

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company\’s locations.

Question 9:

A security engineer at a company is designing a system to mitigate recent setbacks caused by competitors that are beating the company to market with new products. Several of the products incorporate propriety enhancements developed by the engineer\’s company. The network already includes a SEIM and a NIPS and requires 2FA for all user access. Which of the following systems should the engineer consider NEXT to mitigate the associated risks?

A. DLP

B. Mail gateway

C. Data flow enforcement

D. UTM

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A developer needs to implement PKI in an autonomous vehicle\’s software in the most efficient and labor-effective way possible. Which of the following will the developer MOST likely implement?

A. Certificate chain

B. Root CA

C. Certificate pinning

D. CRL

E. OCSP

Correct Answer: B

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle\’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed

and embedded in the vehicle\’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles

or infrastructure. Verified References:

https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

Question 11:

An e-commerce company is running a web server on-premises, and the resource utilization is usually less than 30%. During the last two holiday seasons, the server experienced performance issues because of too many connections, and several customers were not able to finalize purchase orders. The company is looking to change the server configuration to avoid this kind of performance issue.

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution?

A. Move the server to a cloud provider.

B. Change the operating system.

C. Buy a new server and create an active-active cluster.

D. Upgrade the server with a new one.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A security architect is implementing a SOAR solution in an organization\’s cloud production environment to support detection capabilities. Which of the following will be the most likely benefit?

A. Improved security operations center performance

B. Automated firewall log collection tasks

C. Optimized cloud resource utilization

D. Increased risk visibility

Correct Answer: A

SOAR solutions (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) are designed to help organizations efficiently manage security operations. They can automate the collection and analysis of security data, which improves the performance of a security operations center (SOC) by allowing the security team to focus on more strategic tasks and reduce response times to incidents.

Question 13:

A client is adding scope to a project. Which of the following processes should be used when requesting updates or corrections to the client\’s systems?

A. The implementation engineer requests direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer.

B. The change control board must review and approve a submission.

C. The information system security officer provides the systems engineer with the system updates.

D. The security engineer asks the project manager to review the updates for the client\’s system.

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts most of the responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?

A. IaaS

B. SaaS

C. FaaS

D. PaaS

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?

A. Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.

B. Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.

C. Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.

D. Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.

Correct Answer: D

…

16th to 600th Questions	Free practice method
https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-004.html	PDF, VCE, PDF+VCE

CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Requirements

This is a clear official requirement, and it is also very important to master the exam details:

Exam code	CAS-004
Exam name	CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)
Length	165 minutes
Questions type	Multiple-choice and performance-based
Number of exam questions	Up to 90
Passing score:	Around 80%
Equivalent certifications:	Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+, and PenTest+
Languages:	English, Japanese, and Thai
Testing provider:	Pearson VUE
Testing centers:	Online and in-person
Price:	$392

These data are collected and compiled through official information.

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without experience?

All say CASP+ has at least 10 years of IT management experience, including at least 5 years of practical technical security experience.

I only agree with half of it. First of all, there are no prerequisites for the CASP+ certification exam, which means that your strength determines everything. All the numbers are just a general overview, so if you have the strength to get the certification And if you can prove your strength, then the time and numbers are not important.

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without a degree?

I said above that there are no prerequisites, anyone can take the CASP+ certification exam, as long as they have the ability.

Let me tell you a joke:

A person applied for a job, and the HR asked if he had any work experience. The applicant said that I had no experience, HR said that we need experienced people, and the applicant said that I don’t have a job, how can I gain experience.

But you can improve your exam experience through simulation exercises, obtain the CASP+ certificate, and then you can tell my jokes to HR.

What can CompTIA CASP+ do?

CASP+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. The updated CASP+ certification can help certify you in careers such as the following:

Security Architect
Security Engineer
Technical lead analyst
Application security engineer

Companies like the U.S. Army, Dell, Verizon, and Booz Allen Hamilton all look for CASP+ certification in hiring.

I searched for CASP+ on indeed.com using Los Angeles, CA as an example.

Search “Security Engineer”:

You only need to search according to the region you want and the job position you want to get the precise answer, and you can also know the specific salary.

How to Update CompTIA CASP+ 004 Exam Certificate?

You need to know that the guarantee period of any CompTIA certification is three years. To continue to ensure that the certification is valid, you can participate in the CE (Continuing Education) program to protect your vitality and new opportunities and challenges in this field and provide you with a lot of continuous improvement and development. Good effect. You must know that your CASP+ certification needs to accumulate at least 75 continuing education credits (CEU) within three years and upload it to your certification account to ensure that you automatically renew.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam preparation experience

Posted by admin on January 5, 2024 in CompTIA, CompTIA Security+, CompTIA Security+ 2024, sy0-701, sy0-701 2024, sy0-701 dumps, sy0-701 exam, sy0-701 exam 2027, SY0-701 exam preparation experience

I learned about this exam because I had a chat with the Manager in 2023, and he mentioned that I should take the most basic and “simple” exam of CompTIA—Security+.
Because they are all multiple-choice questions, 90 questions in 90 minutes, it is very simple in his eyes, especially compared to other advanced security certifications. There is no need to do a lab, set up an environment, or analyze cases, and it is very user-friendly. For students who have just graduated, it is also readily available.

Although I say this, since I took Cisco’s basic network course in college and passed the CCENT exam, I have almost forgotten the basic knowledge related to networks.
This Security+ covers network security-related topics based on network knowledge, such as common network attacks, protocols, encryption risk management, etc.
From 2022 to the first half of 2023, I was actively preparing for CCL and PTE, and it took me more than a year to have the energy to cope with CompTIA. Next, I will briefly record my preparation process. Some experiences are for reference only.

Security+ 601 or 701?

Since technology is changing with each passing day, the exam will also be updated to adapt to the trends of the times, just like the iPhone is released every year.

CompTIA stipulates that when a version is launched on the market, it will usually be withdrawn from the stage of history three years later. 601 was launched in 2020. It will officially announce its retirement in July 2024 and will not accept registration.

At the same time, his successor is 701. However, CompTIA will introduce successors to the market early to warm up, so 701 can already be taken in November 2023.

SY0-601 and SY0-701 Domains Compared

When I signed up, I was a little hesitant whether to apply for the latest 701 or the more mature 601.
Because the versions are different, the content involved is also different.

In general:

The new CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) addresses the latest cybersecurity trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high performance on the job. These skills include:

Assessing the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommending and implementing appropriate security solutions.
Monitoring and securing hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, Internet of Things (IoT), and operational technology (OT).
Operating with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.
Identifying, analyzing, and responding to security events and incidents.

And 20% of exam objectives were updated to include:

Current trends: The latest trends in threats, attacks, vulnerabilities, automation, zero trust, risk, IoT, OT, and cloud environments are emphasized, as well as communication, reporting, and teamwork.
Hybrid environments: The latest techniques for cybersecurity professionals working in hybrid environments that are located in the cloud and on-premises; cybersecurity professionals should be familiar with both worlds.

Let’s take a look at the differences between the 601 and 701 exam domains:

Let’s go through each SY0-701 domain and what each encompasses.

1. General Security Concepts (12%)

This domain dives into the foundational aspects of security, including the CIA triad of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It also introduces various types of security controls like preventive, deterrent, and corrective, and the Zero Trust architecture.

2. Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)

This domain focuses on identifying and understanding common threat actors and their motivations, such as nation-states and hacktivists. It also discusses various threat vectors like email, SMS, and vulnerable software.

3. Security Architecture (18%)

This domain centers on secure systems architecture, discussing data types, classifications, and methods to secure data. It also covers high availability considerations like load balancing and site considerations like geographic dispersion.

4. Security Operations (28%)

This is the most heavily weighted domain and covers a wide range of operational activities, including incident response and the importance of automation and orchestration in secure operations. It also discusses using various data sources like logs and vulnerability scans to support security investigations.

5. Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

This domain focuses on the governance aspects of security, summarizing elements of effective security governance like policies and standards. It also goes into risk management processes, strategies, and security awareness practices like phishing recognition and user training.

Exam Registration

I chose CompTIA Security+ 701.

The next step is to register. It is said that books cannot be read unless they are borrowed, so if you don’t pay and set a time for the exam, you won’t start preparing with all your heart. The scariest thing is not having a deadline, because I always feel like I have time, so I have to be ready before I sign up for the exam.

Realizing that I had delayed for several months, I resolutely clicked on the CompTIA official website to register in December 2023.

The steps for me to register for the exam were a bit detoured. I bought a voucher from the CompTIA official website and then went to Pearson Vue to arrange the exam. You can register directly with Pearson Vue, schedule the exam, and then pay.

The advantage of buying a voucher from the official website is that there are different combinations to choose from, such as training courses, simulation questions, e-books, and re-exams. If you just want to schedule the exam quickly, you can skip step 1 and go to step 2. Go to PearsonVUE to schedule the exam.

1. Go to CompTIA’s official website to buy the voucher

First, I went to the CompTIA official website in the exam area to purchase exam coupons: go to https://store.comptia.org/ to register – login

Then, select Certification Vouchers – check Security+, and you will see that there are currently two versions of Security+ to choose from, with the same price:

Then, enter the version you want to take, taking 701 as an example, click Details:

You will see that there are different combinations to choose from, each containing different products. Scroll down to see the specific information of each bundle. Here I chose the first one simply and rudely, because I felt that I should be able to pass it once without a Retake (the official website also provides training courses, but I have not used them, and I don’t know if they will be as lengthy as the official AWS training).

Then add to cart – pay. Remember, don’t forget to fill in the discount code for children’s shoes, as there is a 10% discount. How to get the discount code will be mentioned later!

After the payment is successful, you will receive an email stating that you have successfully purchased the voucher, and then you will receive the voucher code through another email. So the question is, I just bought a voucher for so long. When and where should I take the exam? How do I book a test?

Because many of these certificate exams are outsourced, you usually go to a Pearson VUE Test Center to take these exams. So, if you check your purchase record at this time, you will see that you have successfully purchased Security+, but you need to go to another place to arrange your exam.

Find your historical order, your voucher information will be displayed on it, then go to Pearson to confirm the exam time and location.

2. Go to PearsonVUE to schedule the exam

CompTIA Pearson vue registration: https://home.pearsonvue.com/Clients/CompTIA.aspx

Go to Pearson CompTIA homepage:

After successful registration, enter the homepage of Pearson CompTIA

All Step:

Select Exam: Security+
Choose the exam code. Generally, there will be only one, unless it is in a transitional period like Security+ 601. The test I took this time was SY0-701.
Currently, many exams provide two options: going to a test center (Test Center) and taking the test at home. However, I heard that there were too many reasons why personal computers could not be connected, network problems, system problems, etc., so I chose to go to the exam center without fear of trouble. Of course, this varies from person to person. If there is no test center near your home and you don’t want to spend time traveling, then the best option is to take the test at home.
Select language
The next step is to confirm the exam interface, make sure you select the one you want to take, and then the price will be displayed.
The next step is to find a nearby test center
Select your ideal date and time
The last step is to pay, enter a voucher code

Since you have already paid on the CompTIA official website, you only need to fill in the voucher code you just received from the CompTIA official website, and you can place an order successfully! Pearson will then email you the test center date and time.

Useful lessons for exam preparation

My preparation process mainly consisted of taking online classes and answering questions at the same time. I recommend this course called Mike Chapple on LinkedIn Learning.

https://www.linkedin.com/learning/topics/comptia

I have also watched some videos on YouTube, but many of them will complicate things. I can explain a concept to you for 20 to 30 minutes.

For candidates with some basic knowledge, it will be a waste of time. Mike’s courses simply and clearly explain to you the knowledge points involved in the exam and directly highlight the key points to remind you of the minefields in the exam, which is simply a blessing for exam fast-foodists like me.
However, this course is more suitable for candidates who have a certain foundation of network knowledge.

If you are a newbie, I recommend this course from CB Nuggets:

https://www.cbtnuggets.com/it-training/comptia/security-plus

Keith Barker, the lecturer in this class, is quite humorous and can stir up the atmosphere, so you are less likely to feel drowsy because the content is extremely boring. His course covers a comprehensive range of topics and explains them in detail, including some basic knowledge of Networking such as the OSI model, how to classify IPs, VLANs, etc.

The above are all paid courses that require you to subscribe (monthly or yearly). But LinkedIn will have a 1-month free trial, you can take advantage of it for “free sex” ~~~ At the same time, when you use LinkedIn, remember to download the exam coupon (a PDF document) from Mike Chapple’s course page, at Enter the discount code when registering to get a 10% discount!!!

Preparation materials (mainly exam practice)

Because I thought Mike Chapple spoke very well, I was naturally moved by him and bought his Last Minute Review ($9.99).

This PDF document condenses the important knowledge points involved in the entire exam into 13 pages. You can ask for confirmation when you don’t understand something when answering questions. It helps consolidate knowledge points during the preparation process and quickly browse and memorize before the exam. My feeling is that every word may be a test point.

Security+ Study Group

However, the Last Minute Review I bought at that time was not very comprehensive. I felt that some knowledge points were missing, so I also added a lot of things, which is equivalent to making a complete and unified arrangement.

At the same time, the most important thing is to use the existing question bank. There are many test bank websites for various certificates on the Internet, and some of them are paid. I mainly use Leads4Pass.
It has multiple purchase methods, namely PDF and VCE. I paid $45.99 to read the full version of Question 701.

https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-701.html

At present, it does not provide free test questions. I saw that other test codes provide free test questions, so I consulted customer service.
She told me that because sy0-701 is the latest exam item, free exam questions are not available for the time being.

The preparation process is a cycle of exam practice, summarizing mistakes, reviewing knowledge points – practice tests – summary – review. If you don’t understand anything, you can refer to Leads4Pass, and then watch the relevant course video explanations. If you are still not sure, just Google it.

…

Since time is limited and there is still a lot to express, I will write a separate article about the entire exam process next time! If you find it helpful, please bookmark and follow it! Thanks!

[Update Dev 2022]Latest CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber Security (CASP+)

Posted by admin on December 5, 2022 in CASP+ cas-004 dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam questions, CompTIA, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+), CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps

Why choose Lead4Pass CAS-004 dumps?

Not all certification dump platforms can help you pass the exam 100%. Lead4Pass, Pass4sure, Pass4itusre, and Examtopics are all established certification dumps platforms. They definitely stand among the best dumps platforms! I just want to tell the novice students the real situation here! Many experienced certification students know it. My topic today is CAS-004 dumps, and I will not introduce all dumps platforms one by one. But I want to tell you that the most cost-effective is Lead4pass. You can access these platforms, and I’m talking about the real situation.

There are still many new platforms appearing in front of everyone, I will not comment on them, but I can tell you that the most authoritative old websites are the above websites.

How to pass the CAS-004 exam?

Lead4Pass CAS-004 dumps https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-004.html(PDF +VCE). For both PDF and VCE learning modes. You can use either or both of these to help you learn the latest and most effective exam questions, which help You successfully pass the exam.

What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to conceptualize, engineer, integrate and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise.

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

Exam Description: CASP+ covers the technical knowledge and skills required to architect, engineer, integrate, and implement secure solutions across complex environments to support a resilient enterprise while considering the impact of governance, risk, and compliance requirements.

Before you get a full CAS-004 dumps, you can also experience a small test in advance. I will share 12 CAS-004 test questions for free to help you test online, and the answers will be announced at the end of the test.

Download the latest CompTIA CAS-004 dumps PDF for free:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1cUO2SOU1tH5fidaQSGQssHOIW3la0dfW/

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1IbvnTbTz7x2VbxDQ1GHCSEII5xMN55Pn/

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gPzIc5NxyzqTe5jbFzvmofpUGr5d4CUr/

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1HTuRmBFIxx6IdcHgWxydtzAE7QEHNsVX/

Latest CAS-004 dumps Exam Questions and Answers Read Online

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Last updated
15	CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)	Lead4Pass	Dec 05, 2022	CAS-004 dumps

New Question 1:

Which of the following are risks associated with vendor lock-in? (Choose two.)

A. The client can seamlessly move data.

B. The vendor can change product offerings.

C. The client receives a sufficient level of service.

D. The client experiences decreased quality of service.

E. The client can leverage a multi-cloud approach.

F. The client experiences increased interoperability.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cloud/what-is-vendor-lock- in/#:~:text=Vendor%20lock%2Din%20can%20become,may%20involve%20reformatting%2 0the%20data

New Question 2:

A security analyst is concerned that a malicious piece of code was downloaded on a Linux system. After some research, the analyst determines that the suspected piece of code is performing a lot of input/output (I/O) on the disk drive.

Based on the output above, from which of the following process IDs can the analyst begin an investigation?

A. 65

B. 77

C. 83

D. 87

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:

SIMULATION

An administrator wants to install a patch to an application.

INSTRUCTIONS

Given the scenario, download, verify, and install the patch in the most secure manner.

The last installation that is completed will be the final submission.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer: See the below.

In this case, the second link should be used (This may vary in the actual exam). The first link showed the following error so it should not be used.

Also, Two of the link choices used HTTP and not HTTPS as shown when hovering over the links as shown:

Since we need to do this in the most secure manner possible, they should not be used.

Finally, the second link was used and the MD5 utility of MD5sum should be used on the install.exe file as shown. Make sure that the hash matches.

Finally, type in install.exe to install it and make sure there are no signature verification errors.

New Question 4:

A security engineer thinks the development team has been hard-coding sensitive environment variables in its code. Which of the following would BEST secure the company\’s CI/CD pipeline?

A. Utilizing a trusted secrets manager

B. Performing DAST on a weekly basis

C. Introducing the use of container orchestration

D. Deploying instance tagging

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://about.gitlab.com/blog/2021/04/09/demystifying-ci-cd-variables/

New Question 5:

An enterprise is deploying APIs that utilize a private key and a public key to ensure the connection string is protected. To connect to the API, customers must use the private key. Which of the following would BEST secure the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string?

A. Implement a VPN for all APIs.

B. Sign the key with DSA.

C. Deploy MFA for the service accounts.

D. Utilize HMAC for the keys.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://eclipsesource.com/blogs/2016/07/06/keyed-hash-message-authentication-code-in-rest-apis/

New Question 6:

A company runs a well-tended, on-premises fitness club for its employees, about 200 of them each day. Employees want to sync the center\’s login and attendance program with their smartphones. Human resources, which manages the contract for the fitness center, has asked the security architecture to help draft security and privacy requirements.

Which of the following would BEST address these privacy concerns?

A. Use biometric authentication.

B. Utilize geolocation/geofencing.

C. Block unauthorized domain bridging.

D. Implement containerization

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

A systems administrator is preparing to run a vulnerability scan on a set of information systems in the organization. The systems administrator wants to ensure that the targeted systems produce accurate information, especially regarding configuration settings.

Which of the following scan types will provide the systems administrator with the MOST accurate information?

A. A passive, credentialed scan

B. A passive, non-credentialed scan

C. An active, non-credentialed scan

D. An active, credentialed scan

Correct Answer: D

New Question 8:

Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 192.10.1.0/24 for the corporate site and 192.10.2.0/24 for the remote

site. The Telco router interface uses the 192.10.5.0/30 IP range.

Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A.

Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.

Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.

Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

We have the traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:

New Question 9:

A healthcare system recently suffered from a ransomware incident As a result the board of directors decided to hire a security consultant to improve existing network security. The security consultant found that the healthcare network was completely flat, had no privileged access limits and had open RDP access to servers with personal health information. As the consultant builds the remediation plan, which of the following solutions would BEST solve these challenges? (Select THREE).

A. SD-WAN

B. PAM

C. Remote access VPN

D. MFA

E. Network segmentation

F. BGP

G. NAC

Correct Answer: ACE

New Question 10:

A company is preparing to deploy a global service.

Which of the following must the company do to ensure GDPR compliance? (Choose two.)

A. Inform users regarding what data is stored.

B. Provide opt-in/out for marketing messages.

C. Provide data deletion capabilities.

D. Provide optional data encryption.

E. Grant data access to third parties.

F. Provide alternative authentication techniques.

Correct Answer: AC

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above) https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

New Question 11:

A networking team was asked to provide secure remote access to all company employees. The team decided to use a client-to-site VPN as a solution. During a discussion, the Chief Information Security Officer raised a security concern and asked the networking team to route the Internet traffic of remote users through the main office infrastructure. Doing this would prevent remote users from accessing the Internet through their local networks while connected to the VPN.

Which of the following solutions does this describe?

A. Full tunneling

B. Asymmetric routing

C. SSH tunneling

D. Split tunneling

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

Ransomware encrypted the entire human resources files are for a large financial institution. Security operations personnel were unaware of the activity until it was too late to stop it. The restoration will take approximately four hours, and the last backup occurred 48 hours ago. The management team has indicated that the RPO for a disaster recovery event for this data classification is 24 hours.

Based on RPO requirements, which of the following recommendations should the management team make?

A. Leave the current backup schedule intact and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.

B. Leave the current backup schedule intact and make the human resources files read-only.

C. Increase the frequency of backups and create SIEM alerts for IOCs.

D. Decrease the frequency of backups and pay the ransom to decrypt the data.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

A company\’s internet connection is commonly saturated during business hours, affecting internet availability. The company requires all Internet traffic to be business related After analyzing the traffic over a period of a few hours, the security administrator observes the following:

The majority of the IP addresses associated with the TCP/SSL traffic resolve to CDNs

Which of the following should the administrator recommend for the CDN traffic to meet the corporate security requirements?

A. Block outbound SSL traffic to prevent data exfiltration.

B. Confirm the use of the CDN by monitoring NetFlow data.

C. Further investigate the traffic using a sanctioned MITM proxy.

D. Implement an IPS to drop packets associated with the CDN.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 14:

In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned the system that manages retail sales and moved it to a cloud service provider. The new infrastructure did not meet the company\’s availability requirements. During a postmortem analysis, the following issues were highlighted:

International users reported latency when images on the web page were initially loading.

During times of report processing, users reported issues with inventory when attempting to place orders.

Despite the fact that ten new API servers were added, the load across servers was heavy at peak times.

Which of the following infrastructure design changes would be BEST for the organization to implement to avoid these issues in the future?

A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.

B. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.

C. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions and dynamically create API servers based on load.

D. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

A penetration tester obtained root access on a Windows server and, according to the rules of engagement, is permitted to perform post-exploitation for persistence. Which of the following techniques would BEST support this?

A. Configuring system services to run automatically at startup

B. Creating a backdoor

C. Exploiting an arbitrary code execution exploit

D. Moving laterally to a more authoritative server/service

Correct Answer: B

…

Complete CAS-004 Dumps Latest Update Dec 2022:https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-004.html (Total Questions: 325 Q&A). Participate in the full exam program and pass the exam 100% successfully

By the way, check out more free CAS-004 dump PDFs:

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1IbvnTbTz7x2VbxDQ1GHCSEII5xMN55Pn/

Latest updated CAS-004 dumps: Certified for Advanced Cyber Security (CASP+)

Posted by admin on July 5, 2022 in CASP+ cas-004 dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam questions, CompTIA, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+), CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps, Uncategorized

Why choose Lead4Pass CAS-004 dumps?

Not all certification dump platforms can help you pass the exam 100%. Lead4Pass, Pass4sure, test-king, and Passleader are all established certification dumps platforms. They definitely stand among the best dumps platforms! I just want to tell the novice students the real situation here! Many experienced certification students know it. My topic today is CAS-004 dumps, and I will not introduce all dumps platforms one by one. But I want to tell you that the most cost-effective is Lead4pass. You can access these platforms, and I’m talking about the real situation.

There are still many new platforms appearing in front of everyone, I will not comment on them, but I can tell you that the most authoritative old websites are the above websites.

How to pass the CAS-004 exam?

What is the difference between CAS-003 and CAS-004?

CAS-003 Published: April 2, 2018

Retirement: April 5, 2022

CAS-004 Published: October 6, 2021

[Updated 2022.7] CAS-004 exam question and answers

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident The analyst has reviewed all the logs for the time surrounding the incident and identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application.
Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

A. Software decompiler
B. Network enumerator
C. Log reduction and analysis tool
D. Static code analysis

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A forensic investigator would use the foremost command for:

A. cloning disks.
B. analyzing network-captured packets.
C. recovering lost files.
D. extracting features such as email addresses.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst is performing a vulnerability assessment on behalf of a client. The analyst must define what constitutes a risk to the organization. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s FIRST action?

A. Create a full inventory of information and data assets.
B. Ascertain the impact of an attack on the availability of crucial resources.
C. Determine which security compliance standards should be followed.
D. Perform a full system penetration test to determine the vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

A developer wants to maintain the integrity of each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Which of the following would be BEST for the developer to perform? (Choose two.)

A. Utilize code signing by a trusted third party.
B. Implement certificate-based authentication.
C. Verify MD5 hashes.
D. Compress the program with a password.
E. Encrypt with 3DES.
F. Make the DACL read-only.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.
The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
B. a zero-day attack.
C. an advanced persistent threat.
D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022.7] Get more CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions and answers

CAS-004 Exam Questions Online Test

CAS-004 Q1:

A security analyst sees some suspicious entries in a log file from a web server website, which has a form that allows customers to leave feedback on the company\\’s products. The analyst believes a malicious actor is scanning the web form. To know which security controls to put in place, the analyst first needs to determine the type of activity occurring to design a control. Given the log below:

cas-004 q1

Which of the following is the MOST likely type of activity occurring?

A. SQL injection
B. XSS scanning
C. Fuzzing
D. Brute forcing

CAS-004 Q2:

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router\\’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company\\’s external router\\’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 >

128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company\\’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets.

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication.

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks.

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company\\’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic.

The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company\\’s ISP to block those malicious packets.

CAS-004 Q3:

Given the following output from a security tool in Kali:

cas-004 q3

A. Log reduction
B. Network enumerator
C. Fuzzer
D. SCAP scanner

CAS-004 Q4:

An organization relies heavily on third-party mobile applications for official use within a BYOD deployment scheme An excerpt from an approved text-based-chat client application AndroidManifest xml is as follows:

cas-004 q4

Which of the following would restrict application permissions while minimizing the impact to normal device operations?

A. Add the application to the enterprise mobile whitelist.
B. Use the MDM to disable the devices\\’ recording microphones and SMS.
C. Wrap the application before deployment.
D. Install the application outside of the corporate container.

CAS-004 Q5:

A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a split-tunnel VPN. An additional splittunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?

A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through it.

A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.

CAS-004 Q6:

A technician is reviewing the following log:

cas-004 q6

Which of the following tools should the organization implement to reduce the highest risk identified in this log?

A. NIPS
B. DLP
C. NGFW
D. SIEM

CAS-004 Q7:

To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions.
Which of the following approaches is described?

A. Blue team
B. Red team
C. Black box
D. White team

CAS-004 Q8:

Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized or unintentional inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company\\’s final software releases? (Choose two.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

CAS-004 Q9:

During a system penetration test, a security engineer successfully gained access to a shell on a Linux host as a standard user and wants to elevate the privilege levels. Which of the following is a valid Linux post-exploitation method to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Spawn a shell using sudo and an escape string such as sudo vim -c ‘!sh’.
B. Perform ASIC password cracking on the host.
C. Read the /etc/passwd file to extract the usernames.
D. Initiate unquoted service path exploits.
E. Use the UNION operator to extract the database schema.

Reference: https://docs.rapid7.com/insightvm/elevating-permissions/

CAS-004 Q10:

Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?

A. Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) x Value of Asset
B. Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability
C. Impact x Threat x Vulnerability
D. Risk Likelihood x Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)

Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so `loss\\’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure.
Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.

CAS-004 Q11:

An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

A. $0
B. $7,500
C. $10,000
D. $12,500
E. $15,000

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF – Thus the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

CAS-004 Q12:

A company has expenenced negative publicity associated with users giving out their credentials accidentally or sharing intellectual secrets were not properly defined. The company recently implemented some new policies and is now testing their effectiveness. Over the last three months, the number of phishing victims-dropped from 100 to only two in the last test The DLP solution that was implemented catches potential material leaks, and the user responsible is retrained Personal email accounts and USB drives are restricted from the corporate network.
Given the improvements, which of the following would a security engineer identify as being needed in a gap analysis?

A. Additional corporate-wide training on phishing.
B. A policy outlining what is and is not acceptable on social media.
C. Notifications when a user falls victim to a phishing attack.
D. Positive DLP preventions with stronger enforcement.

Verify the answer:

Q1	Q2	Q3	Q4	Q5	Q6	Q7	Q8	Q9	Q10	Q11	Q12
A	A	D	B	A	B	C	AC	C	B	B	B

[Updated 2022.7]https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gPzIc5NxyzqTe5jbFzvmofpUGr5d4CUr/

PS. 12-track CAS-004 exam PDF free download:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1mL0JwT4wlXDPb53aND7soRSLSfs6fGKd/view?usp=sharing

Complete CAS-004 Dumps Latest Update Feb 2022:https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-004.html (Total Questions: 255 Q&A) [Updated 2022.7] Total Questions: 267 Q&A. Participate in the full exam program and pass the exam 100% successfully.

SY0-601 dumps [Updated 2022] Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ exam

Posted by admin on June 23, 2022 in CompTIA, CompTIA Security+, sy0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021, sy0-601 dumps, sy0-601 dumps pdf, sy0-601 exam key, sy0-601 exam questions, sy0-601 practice test

SY0-601 dumps have been updated to prepare for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam.

Prepare for the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam Choose Lead4Pass, a reliable IT certification provider, you just need to download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-601.html, guaranteeing you a successful first attempt to pass the target exam.

Because Lead4Pass sy0-601 dumps have a long-term good reputation from 2016 to now, it can help candidates truly pass the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam. So you just need to practice sy0-601 dumps to ensure that you pass the CompTIA Security+ 2022 certification exam 100%.

You can also practice some sy0-601 dumps questions online first:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string Which of the following would be the BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A. head
B. Tcpdump
C. grep
D. rail
E. curl
F. openssi
G. dd

QUESTION 2:

The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST address this security concern?

A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.
B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental system’s network.

QUESTION 3:

Users at organizations have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized programs. However, some users have administrative access to their workstations to enable legacy programs to function properly. Which of the following should the security administrator consider implementing to address this issue?

A. Application code signing
B. Application whitelisting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

QUESTION 4:

A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non-functional testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the developer is conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

QUESTION 5:

A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive
C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

QUESTION 6:

A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users\’ passwords.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

QUESTION 7:

A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

QUESTION 8:

A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the access point to improve security.
Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)

A. RADIUS
B. PEAP
C. WPS
D. WEP-TKIP
E. SSL
F. WPA2-PSK

QUESTION 9:

A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

QUESTION 10:

A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and delayed order processing.
The business owner now needs to ensure two things:
1.
Protection from power outages
2.
Always-available connectivity In case of an outage
The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following would BEST fulfill the owner\’s second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.
B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability
D. Replace the business\’s wired network with a wireless network.

QUESTION 11:

An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leaves the organization. Which of the following will be the organization MOST likely to implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

QUESTION 12:

Given the following logs:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?

A. Rainbow table
B. Dictionary
C. Password spraying
D. Pass-the-hash

QUESTION 13:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations.
Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice
B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding

……

Publish the answer:

Number:	Answers:	Explain:
Q1	AC	A – “analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly” C – “search the entire series of requests for a particular string”
Q2	D
Q3	B	Application whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/application-whitelisting
Q4	A
Q5	D
Q6	C
Q7	B
Q8	AF
Q9	B
Q10	C
Q11	B
Q12	C
Q13	A

[Google Drive] Download the sy0-601 dumps question and answers above:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_ij2vKQ_V5lWRMAfyPhC_vzDXyIPfzHI/

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam has undergone many changes, SY0-101, SY0-201, SY0-301, SY0-401, SY0-501 to now SY0-601, no matter when you use Lead4Pass
Dumps materials are available to help you successfully pass the objective exam. To pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam today, just download the SY0-601 dumps from https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-601.html and make sure you pass the exam 100%.

The latest updated PT0-002 dumps serve all CompTIA PT0-002 PenTest+ exam candidates

Posted by admin on June 11, 2022 in CompTIA, CompTIA PenTest+, pt0-002 CompTIA PenTest+ Certification, pt0-002 exam dumps, pt0-002 exam questions, pt0-002 free dumps, pt0-002 practice test

The newly updated CompTIA PT0-002 dumps provides 162 exam questions and answers, covering the full range of practice exam questions, for all candidates taking the PT0-002 PenTest+ exam.

The CompTIA PT0-002 PenTest+ exam is for cybersecurity professionals responsible for penetration testing and vulnerability management, and you can use the PDF and VCE exam engine provided by the Lead4Pass PT0-002 dumps to learn all the exam knowledge to help you accomplish your mission.

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Experience a selection of the latest CompTIA PT0-002 Dumps exam questions and answers

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	PDF Download
13	CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam	Lead4Pass	pt0-002 pdf

NEW QUESTION 1:

A security assessor is attempting to craft specialized XML files to test the security of the parsing functions during ingest into a Windows application. Before beginning to test the application, which of the following should the assessor request from the organization?

A. Sample SOAP messages
B. The REST API documentation
C. A protocol fuzzing utility
D. An applicable XSD file

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2:

User credentials were captured from a database during an assessment and cracked using rainbow tables. Based on the ease of compromise, which of the following algorithms was MOST likely used to store the passwords in the database?

A. MD5
B. bcrypt
C. SHA-1
D. PBKDF2

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/understanding-rainbow-table-attack/

NEW QUESTION 3:

A penetration tester is starting an assessment but only has publicly available information about the target company. The client is aware of this exercise and is preparing for the test. Which of the following describes the scope of the assessment?

A. Partially known environment testing
B. Known environment testing
C. Unknown environment testing
D. Physical environment testing

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4:

A manager calls upon a tester to assist with diagnosing an issue within the following:
Python script: #!/user/bin/python s = “Administrator”
The tester suspects it is an issue with string slicing and manipulation Analyze the following code segment and drag and drop the correct output for each string manipulation to its corresponding code segment Options may be used once or not at all.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

NEW QUESTION 5:

A penetration tester was conducting a penetration test and discovered the network traffic was no longer reaching the client\’s IP address. The tester later discovered the SOC had used a sinkhole on the penetration tester\’s IP address.

Which of the following BEST describes what happened?

A. The penetration tester was testing the wrong assets
B. The planning process failed to ensure all teams were notified
C. The client was not ready for the assessment to start
D. The penetration tester had incorrect contact information

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6:

Running a vulnerability scanner on a hybrid network segment that includes general IT servers and industrial control systems:

A. will reveal vulnerabilities in the Modbus protocol.
B. may cause unintended failures in control systems.
C. may reduce the true positive rate of findings.
D. will create a denial-of-service condition on the IP networks.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hsdl.org/?viewanddid=7262

NEW QUESTION 7:

A penetration tester ran a ping –A command during an unknown environment test, and it returned a 128 TTL packet.

Which of the following OSs would MOST likely return a packet of this type?

A. Windows
B. Apple
C. Linux
D. Android

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.freecodecamp.org/news/how-to-identify-basic-internet-problems-with-ping/

NEW QUESTION 8:

A security team is switching firewall vendors. The director of security wants to scope a penetration test to satisfy the requirements to perform the test after major architectural changes. Which of the following is the BEST way to approach the project?

A. Design a penetration test approach, focusing on publicly released firewall DoS vulnerabilities.
B. Review the firewall configuration, followed by a targeted attack by a read team.
C. Perform a discovery scan to identify changes in the network.
D. Focus on an objective-based approach to assess network assets with a red team.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9:

When preparing for an engagement with an enterprise organization, which of the following is one of the MOST important items to develop fully prior to beginning the penetration testing activities?

A. Clarify the statement of work.
B. Obtain an asset inventory from the client.
C. Interview all stakeholders.
D. Identify all third parties involved.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

The results of a Nmap scan are as follows:

Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST

Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )

The host is up (0.0102s latency).

Not shown: 998 filtered ports

Port State Service

80/TCP open HTTP

|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/HTML)

|_http-slowloris-check:

| VULNERABLE:

| Slowloris DoS Attack

|Device type: bridge|general purpose

Running (JUST GUESSING): QEMU (95%)

OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu

No exact OS matches were found for the host (test conditions non-ideal).

OS detection was performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.

Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds

Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)

A. Network device
B. Public-facing web server
C. Active Directory domain controller
D. IoT/embedded device
E. Exposed RDP
F. Print queue

Correct Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 11:

A software company has hired a penetration tester to perform a penetration test on a database server. The tester has been given a variety of tools used by the company\’s privacy policy. Which of the following would be the BEST to use to find vulnerabilities on this server?

A. OpenVAS
B. Nikto
C. SQLmap
D. Nessus

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/blog/best-penetration-testing-tools

NEW QUESTION 12:

A security company has been contracted to perform a scoped insider-threat assessment to try to gain access to the human resources server that houses PII and salary data. The penetration testers have been given an internal network starting position.

Which of the following actions, if performed, would be ethical within the scope of the assessment?

A. Exploiting a configuration weakness in the SQL database
B. Intercepting outbound TLS traffic
C. Gaining access to hosts by injecting malware into the enterprise-wide update server
D. Leveraging a vulnerability on the internal CA to issue fraudulent client certificates
E. Establishing and maintaining persistence on the domain controller

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13:

A company recruited a penetration tester to configure wireless IDS over the network. Which of the following tools would BEST test the effectiveness of the wireless IDS solutions?

A. Aircrack-ng
B. Wireshark
C. Wifite
D. Kismet

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://purplesec.us/perform-wireless-penetration-test/

…

Download the CompTIA PT0-002 PDF 2022:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/17L47_KDIP0cQJapPpfYFN5yjBJBkT3Wg/

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Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications | Provide learning materials

Posted by admin on May 17, 2022 in CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA Security+

Whether you are a novice or an exam candidate, you can use this article as your learning object, I will share the most popular online complete knowledge and learning materials.

With the advancement of society, the online world has become more and more complex, various network security problems have arisen, and the opportunities for bad actors to steal, damage or destroy are also increasing. The increase in cybercrime is driving the demand for cybersecurity professionals.
The job outlook for studying cybersecurity has grown accordingly.

Do you know that there is a lot of network security knowledge in this world, if you are a novice, you will be confused about how to choose. Below I will share a picture of the most popular network security certification in the world, if you don’t know how to do it, then choose the most popular, This is definitely not wrong.

The following table shows more than 300 different cybersecurity certifications searched on three popular recruiting sites, LinkedIn, Indeed, and Simply Hired, and these 10 certifications appear the most in total U.S. job listings (The data is from last year and is for reference only.)

source: https://www.coursera.org/articles/popular-cybersecurity-certifications

1.Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Earning a CISSP demonstrates your ability to effectively design, implement, and manage a best-in-class cybersecurity program.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/CISSP

Provide learning materials:

CISSP practice test:examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

2. Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA)

Prove your expertise in IS/IT auditing, controls and security and rank among the most qualified in the industry.

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cisa

Provide learning materials:

CISA practice test: examfast.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

3. Certified Information Security Manager (CISM)

ISACA Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) certification demonstrates expertise in information security governance, project development and management, incident management, and risk management.

CISM work practices are valid until 31 May 2022

Updated CISM exam content syllabus effective from 1 June 2022

https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cism

Provide learning materials:

CISM practice test: micvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

4. Security+

CompTIA Security+ is a global certification that validates the essential skills required to perform core security functions and pursue a career in IT security.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security

Provide learning materials:

Security+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

5. Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH v11 will teach you the latest commercial-grade hacking tools, techniques, and methods that hackers and information security professionals use to break into organizations legally.

https://www.eccouncil.org/programs/certified-ethical-hacker-ceh/

Provide learning materials:

CEH practice test: latestvce.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

6. GIAC Security Essentials Certification (GSEC)

The GIAC Security Fundamentals (GSEC) certification validates a practitioner’s knowledge of information security, not just simple terms and concepts.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/security-essentials-gsec/

Provide learning materials:

GSEC practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no

7.Systems Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)

Implement, monitor and manage IT infrastructure using security best practices, policies and procedures developed by (ISC)²’s cybersecurity experts.

https://www.isc2.org/Certifications/SSCP

Provide learning materials:

SSCP practice test: no
PDF download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-HW8f-R1b2-m5l99Y8mUD0U1bP-S_TAE/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

8. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) is an advanced cybersecurity certification for security architects and senior security engineers responsible for leading and improving enterprise cybersecurity readiness.

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Provide learning materials:

CASP+ practice test: braindump4it.com
PDF + VCE download: https://www.leads4pass.com/

9. GIAC Certified Incident Handler (GCIH)

The GIAC Incident Handler certification verifies a practitioner’s ability to detect, respond to, and resolve computer security incidents using a broad range of fundamental security skills.

https://www.giac.org/certifications/certified-incident-handler-gcih/

Provide learning materials:

GCIH practice test: no
PDF Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1sBIEb96vghkRmlbD-gLhjigSAw9dHiAi/view?usp=sharing
PDF + VCE download: no

10. Offensive Security Certified Professional (OSCP)

Offensive Security’s OSCP has become one of the most sought-after certifications for penetration testers. This exam tests your ability to compromise a range of targeted computers using multiple exploitation steps and generates a detailed penetration test report for each attack.

https://www.offensive-security.com/pwk-oscp/

Provide learning materials:

OSCP practice test: no
PDF + VCE download: no
PDF + VCE download: no

Is Cybersecurity Certification Worth It?

A survey by (ISC)² found that 70% of cybersecurity professionals surveyed in the U.S. require employer certification.
According to the same study, security certifications can also lead to big pay raises. The right credentials can also make you more attractive to recruiters and hiring managers alike.

P.s. Latest Updated CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the company\’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security manager to use in a threat mode?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A

Hacktivists – “a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further social or political ends.”

QUESTION 2:

A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance of errors that correlate with users\’ reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rale
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: A

where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate (FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.

QUESTION 3:

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available again within 60 minutes.
Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/rpo-and-rto-understanding-the-differences/

QUESTION 5:

A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring again?

A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers
B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment
C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?

A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and finally to production systems.

B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and then apply them to the production systems

C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a staging environment

D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of them in a testing environment

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).

A. Password and security question
B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8:

A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?

A. inability to authenticate
B. Implied trust
C. Lack of computing power
D. Unavailable patch

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

A. Race condition testing
B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output: Which of the following Is the analyst observing?

A. IGMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

To further secure a company\’s email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the company\’s domain Which of the following is being used?

A. PFS
B. SPF
C. DMARC
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points and hot-spots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

A. Evil twin
B. Rogue access point
C. On-path attack

Correct Answer: B

……

CompTIA Security+ 2022 Exam Questions and Answers Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lJ911sJMs1cOPYD3MCKznr89c5s5KTn5/view?usp=sharing

View 572 Exam Questions And Answers

Real Dumps Questions For 220-1002 Exam CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2

Posted by admin on May 5, 2022 in 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2, 220-1002 dumps, 220-1002 exam key, 220-1002 exam questions, 220-1002 practice test, CompTIA, CompTIA A+

The CompTIA 220-1002 exam is related to the CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2,
It tests your operating system installation and configuration, extended security, software troubleshooting, and operating procedures. The new CompTIA 220-1002 dumps questions are real and help you test questions covering the knowledge points and skills tested.
Real dumps questions are online to ensure you can pass the 220-1002 CompTIA A+ Certification: Core 2 exam on the first try.

Try to test CompTIA A+ 220-1002 free dumps.

QUESTION 1:

The IT department has installed new software in the folder C:\Program Files\Business Application. Ann, a user, runs the business application and tries to save her work. When doing so, Ann receives the following error:
Cannot save file C: \Program Files\Business Application\file1.wrk ?Access is denied.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure solution to this error?

A. Add Ann to the local Power Users group
B. Set the software to save to the %APPDATA% folder
C. Add Ann to the local administrator group
D. Give Ann write access to C:\Program Files\
E. Give Ann permission to elevate her permissions through a UAC prompt

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2:

A user is unable to open a document on a shared drive from a Linux workstation. Which of the following commands would help the user gain access to the document?

A. chmod
B. lfconfig
C. pwd
D. grep

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

A technician determines a newly installed service is keeping a device from functioning in Windows. Which of the following tools should the technician use to keep the service from being loaded on the PC reboot?

A. Task Scheduler
B. MSINFO32
C. System Restore
D. MSConfig

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

A user lives in a location that experiences frequent lightning storms. Which of the following would be the LEAST expensive solution to protect the user\’s computer hardware?

A. A surge protector
B. Grounding
C. A power generator
D. An uninterruptible power supply

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

During a network server outage, the administrator’s computer received an IP address of 169.254.0.10 and had no access to internal or external resources. Which of the following should be configured to ensure the administrator\’s computer retains network access?

A. Alternative IP address
B. Wake-on-LAN
C. APIPA
D. Proxy setting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A technician installed a new video card into a computer but did not connect the second monitor. When the technician boots the computer, it shows a blue screen during boot and automatically restarts.
The technician is able to boot into safe mode successfully.
Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Install the second monitor.
B. Replace the video card
C. Install updated video drivers.
D. Disable the antivirus.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an ESD mat?

A. Protects against accidental static discharge
B. Protects against dust/dirt contamination
C. Protects against accidental scratches
D. Protects against accidental water damage

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

A systems administrator created a policy that should create a shortcut on a user\’s desktop Shortly after the policy was created, a technician inspects the user\’s desktop and notices the shortcut is not present. The administrator verifies that the policy was created correctly and that it is being applied to the user\’s account.
Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue Immediately without interrupting the user\’s session?

A. gpupdate /force
B. gpupdate /boot
C. gpupdate /logoff
D. gpupdate /target:computer

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Which of the following operating systems has versions for servers, workstations, and phones?

A. Android
B. iOS
C. Chrome OS
D. Windows

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Joe, an end-user, has been prompted to provide his username and password to access the payroll system.
Which of the following authentication methods is being requested?

A. Single-factor
B. Multifactor
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A security director is designing a company\’s disaster recovery procedure. The information security officer wants the servers to continue to function during short power outages, and important documents should be stored off-site in case of a catastrophe at the data center.
Which of the following would BEST fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Power distribution unit
B. UPS
C. Cloud storage
D. Surge protector
E. Local file replication
F. RAID

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12:

Ann, an employee, has been trying to use a company-issued mobile device to access an internal file share while traveling abroad. She restarted the device due to a mobile OS update, but she is now unable to access company information Ann calls the help desk for assistance, and a technician verifies she can make calls and access websites
Which of the following should the technician suggest NEXT to try to fix the issue?

A. Navigate to the VPN profile in the device settings,delete the pre-shared key. and restart the device
B. Instruct Ann to open the company\’s MDM application to ensure proper functionality
C. Navigate to the corporate intranet page and use hyperlinks to access the file share.
D. Instruct Ann to disable TLS 1.0 in the device settings

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

Which of the following are methods used to prevent an unauthorized computer from establishing a connection as a node on a corporate network? (Select TWO.)

A. Port security
B. Anti-malware
C. Certificate
D. IDS
E. Firewall
F. Captive portal

Correct Answer: AE

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SK0-005 Dumps Update V14.02 Guaranteed CompTIA Server+ Exam Pass

Posted by admin on April 27, 2022 in CompTIA, CompTIA Server+, sk0-005 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam, sk0-005 dumps, sk0-005 exam questions, sk0-005 pdf, sk0-005 practice test

Why use SK0-005 dumps V14.02? SK0-005 Dumps V14.02 comprehensive update contains 122 practical and valid exam questions and answers and provides problem analysis, which really helps you learn knowledge and successfully pass the CompTIA Server+ Exam. SK0-005 Dumps V14.02 exam preparation materials: https://www.leads4pass.com/sk0-005.html, Lead4Pass provides both PDF and VCE study methods, both reviewed and certified by our experts, Guaranteeing you can confidently prepare for the CompTIA Server+ exam and succeed on your first try.

SK0-005 Free dumps to help you learn part

The questions for SK0-005 were last updated on April 23, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 122 questions:

QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards
B. Reflective glass
C. Security guards
D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard

QUESTION 2:

A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible

B. A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested retransmission of the write from the controller

C. A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly

D. A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.backblaze.com/blog/what-smart-stats-indicate-hard-drive-failures/

QUESTION 3:

A technician is configuring a server that requires secure remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 443

Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-access/ras/manage-remote-clients/install/step-1-configure-the-remote-access-infrastructure

QUESTION 4:

A Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514. The administrator uses Telnet to check port 514 against the Syslog server. However, the Syslog server is not responding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the Syslog server is not responding?

A. The Syslog server is down.
B. Telnet does not work on UDP.
C. The firewall is blocking UDP port 514
D. The log is full on the Syslog server.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall
B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure
C. The local hosts file is blank
D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following would MOST likely be part of the user authentication process when implementing SAML across multiple applications?

A. SSO
B. LDAP
C. TACACS
D. MFA

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.onelogin.com/learn/how-single-sign-on-works

QUESTION 7:

A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:

A. hardware is UEFI compliant
B. volume is formatted as GPT
C. volume is formatted as MBR
D. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8:

Users in an office lost access to a file server following a short power outage. The server administrator noticed the server was powered off. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent this situation in the future?

A. Connect the server to a KVM
B. Use cable management
C. Connect the server to a redundant network
D. Connect the server to a UPS

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9:

A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 53
E. 443
F. 636

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/dns_best_practices

QUESTION 10:

Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?

A. Overwrite the backups
B. Clone the configuration
C. Run a restore test
D. Check the media integrity

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11:

Which of the following backup types only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine?

A. Differential
B. Snapshot
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://searchdatabackup.techtarget.com/definition/incremental-backup

QUESTION 12:

A company\’s IDS has identified outbound traffic from one of the web servers coming over port 389 to an outside address. This server only hosts websites. The company\’s SOC administrator has asked a technician to harden this server. Which of the following would be the BEST way to complete this request?

A. Disable port 389 on the server
B. Move traffic from port 389 to port 443
C. Move traffic from port 389 to port 637
D. Enable port 389 for web traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.auditmypc.com/tcp-port-637.asp https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/66908/is-port-389-on-ad-in-anyway-used-or-required- when.html

QUESTION 13:

A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company\’s management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management\’s priorities? (Choose two.)

A. Differential
B. Synthetic full
C. Archive
D. Full
E. Incremental
F. Open file

Correct Answer: AB

……

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