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Easily pass the 200-310 exam, share the effective Cisco 200-310 Learning Guide for free

Posted by admin on in CCDA, Cisco

How can I get a valid 200-310 study guide for passing the 200-310 exam? Braindump4it shares the latest and effective Cisco 200-310 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 200-310 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 200-310 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-310.html (660 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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This exam requires a foundation or apprentice knowledge of network design for the Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks.

Latest updates Cisco CCDA 200-310 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs

between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use the existing WAN.

Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used? 

A. VPLS 

B. L2TPv3 

C. OTV 

D. AToM 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 2

A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy

to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.) 

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit 

B. ISDN BRI 

C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet 

D. DWDM l 

E. POTS Line T1 WAN 

Correct Answer: AC 

QUESTION 3

Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right. 

Select and Place:lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts?
A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?
A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. extra large
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase uplink
utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding
new physical connections?
A. enable spanning-tree portfast
B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Applications
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which STP feature allows an access port to bypass the learning and listening states?
A. Root Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. BPDU Guard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two considerations are important when designing the access layer? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. QoS services
C. routing between VLANs
D. HSRP implementation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A. G.711
B. G.718
C. G.722
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC
Frame relay is old \\’shared\\’ technology today\\’s sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is an example of a fixed two-level hierarchical routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. static routes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is one of the methods that Cisco routers and switches can use to share information between directly
connected devices on a regular basis?
A. NetFlow
B. ARP
C. NHRP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco 210-065 exam questions, 210-065 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Posted by admin on in CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

“Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)” Exam 210-065. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-065 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-065 exam: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of and skills to implement various Cisco Video endpoints in converged Cisco video infrastructures. It also tests a candidate’s ability to implement and troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communication and Collaboration, TelePresence, and Digital Media Player in different Cisco business video solution architectures. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/210-065.html exam.

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Latest Cisco 210-065 pdf

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210-060 CICD – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/civnd.html

Free Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. bursty
Correct Answer: CDEG

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid high-contrast elements
C. Use earth tone paint colors
D. Avoid plants or decorations
E. Use glossy finishes
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/cts_3010/assembly_guide/3010_assembly_guide/3010_room_recommendations.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco DMS component is used for content recording?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco TCS
C. Cisco DMM
D. Cisco DMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a
Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the
local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/profile-series/tc6/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc60.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which two fields must be configured for a Cisco TelePresence device to connect to a Phonebook source? (Choose
two.)
A. Phonebook Server > URL
B. Phonebook Server > Type
C. Phonebook Server > Provisioning
D. Phonebook Server > Phonebook
E. Phonebook Server > Host
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which three features does a Cisco TelePresence Content Server provide that a Cisco MCU cannot? (Choose three.)
A. conference bridge virtualization support
B. multiple conference layouts
C. resource optimization via conductor
D. 720p resolution at 60 fps
E. 1080p resolution at 60 fps
F. multiscreen immersive room endpoint support
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 7
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias > Template > Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > Template
C. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > H.323 > Template
D. Recording Alias > Workflow > Template > Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: Dlead4pass 210-065 exam question q8

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/mx-series/tc7/administration-guide/mx700-mx800-administrator-guide-tc72.pdf

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Manager
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server
Correct Answer: AC
Features and Benefits
Benefits of Cisco TMS include:
Scalable provisioning: Cisco TMS can support rapid, large-scale deployments of up to 100,000 Cisco TelePresence
users, endpoints, and soft clients across disparate customer locations, including up to 5,000 direct-managed devices.
Centralized administration: Cisco TMS automates and simplifies the management of Cisco Telepresence meetings and
Cisco Telepresence infrastructure resources, reducing your total cost of ownership (TCO). Flexible scheduling: Cisco
TMS makes scheduling Cisco Telepresence meetings more accessible with a range of tools including a simple and
intuitive Smart Scheduler option, extensions for Microsoft Exchange integration, and advanced booking capabilities for
experienced administrators.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html

QUESTION 10
Which conference types can occur at any time without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created
as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Correct Answer: E
Rendezvous conferences (also called meet-me, static, or permanent conferences) require endpoints to dial in to a
predetermined multipoint resource. These multipoint resources are shared by a number of endpoints and are capable of
hosting many conferences at the same time. Because a dedicated device is used to host rendezvous conferences,
these conferences can have many more participants than multisite conferences (but not necessarily more than an ad-
hoc conference on a dedicated multipoint device).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/confernc.html

QUESTION 11
Which two features are supported by the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server? (Choose two.)
A. motion detection
B. clustering
C. IP and analog cameras
D. MPEG-2 and MPEG-4 encoding
E. virtual matrix
Correct Answer: AC
Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server features include:
Flexibility to use a broad array of analog cameras and IP cameras
Simultaneous MJPEG and MPEG-4 encoding
Low-latency video with high-quality images
CIF, 2CIF, and 4CIF, up to 30 fps
PTZ and alarm inputs
Motion detection
Scalable deployment with multiple sites, cameras, users, and storage
Archives at different frame rate, duration, and location
Efficient redundant multi-site archiving that conserves bandwidth
Loop-and event-tagged video recording and event export (video clip) capabilities
Ability to connect to external storage
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/28981/cisco-video-surveillance-encoding-server

QUESTION 12
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for
TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber
registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence
capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in
the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which function does a Cisco TCS recording alias perform?
A. It links recorded media to a specified output location.
B. It provides a dialable alias that will trigger a TCS recording workflow.
C. It sends media to Cisco Medianet.
D. It provides an alias for the recorded filename.
Correct Answer: B
Understanding Recording Aliases
The Content Server records calls and can produce the resulting recordings in a range of formats and sizes for users to
watch or download. Creators of recordings can make recordings available to all or selected users. To make recordings,
creators must use a recording alias. A recording alias defines several properties, including ones related to dialing the
Content Server from an endpoint for the recording session; specifying recording outputs; and indicating viewing and
editing
permissions (see Recording Alias Properties).
There are two types of recording alias:
System recording aliases, which can be used by any user in the creator or site manager role.
Personal recording aliases, which have owners in the creator role. Owners can edit certain parts of their recording
aliases: recording settings, default recording information, and default recording permissions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html#wp999176

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Cisco 210-060 exam questions, 210-060 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Posted by admin on in CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

“Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)” Exam 210-060. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-060 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-060 exam – This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco UC solutions maintenance. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/210-060.html exam.

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Free Cisco 210-060 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

In which three ways does QoS provide better network service VoIP quality? (Choose three.) 

A. minimizes priority queuing 

B. manages network congestion 

C. improves loss characteristics 

D. supports dedicated bandwidth 

E. decreases traffic priorities 

F. increases packet size 

Correct Answer: BCD 

In general, QoS provides better (and more predictable) network service by providing the following features: ?Supporting

dedicated bandwidth ?Improving loss characteristics ?Avoiding and managing network congestion ?Shaping network

traffic ?Setting traffic priorities across the network Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/qos_solutions/QoSVoIP/QoSVoIP.pdf 

QUESTION 2

An engineer is selecting a digital media player and must ensure that there are Ethernet downlink ports. Which model

has these ports? 

A. Edge 300 DMP 

B. Edge 340 DMP 

C. 4310 DMP 

D. 4400 DMP 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which option in RTMT would be used to monitor connections using Cisco Unity Connection? 

A. Port Monitor 

B. Called Party Tracing 

C. System Summary 

D. Trace and Log Central 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 4

An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator

configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? 

A. Cisco Quality Report Tool 

B. System Log Management 

C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting 

D. Cisco JTAPI 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5

How many servers can be supported in a Cisco IM and Presence Service Cluster? 

A. 10 

B. 2 

C. 8 

D. 6 

E. 4 

Correct Answer: D 

The Cisco IM and Presence Service cluster consists of up to a maximum of six servers, which can be configured into

multiple subclusters with the maximum of three subclusters for high availability. 

QUESTION 6

Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6

When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-
peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-1 lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-2

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port
used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.

lead4pass 210-060 exam question q6-3

QUESTION 7
A manager requires multiparty video meetings with presentation capability. Which endpoint meets the requirement
assuming there is no centralized bridge?
A. Cisco SX20
B. Cisco 7800
C. Cisco DX650
D. Cisco Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which four fields are required when manually configuring IP phones in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
(Choose four.)
A. MAC Address
B. IP Address
C. Hunt Group
D. VLAN ID
E. Device Pool
F. Phone Button Template
G. Dial Peer
H. Device Security Profile
Correct Answer: AEFH

QUESTION 9
An engineer has updated the company dial plan and wants to get rid of unassigned numbers. Which action must be
taken in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to accomplish this task?
A. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Group
B. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Plan Report
C. Delete unassigned DNs under Route List
D. Delete unassigned DNs under Route Pattern
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91/CUCM_BK_A34970C5_00_admin-guide-91_chapter_0101111.pdf

QUESTION 10
A new customer requests an upgrade to its current TelePresence Content Server. Before issuing a quote, the presales
engineer would like to know the software version and option keys that are currently installed on this server. Which menu
option path could be used to find this information?
A. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Logs
B. Management Tab>Diagnostics>Server Overview
C. Management Tab>Configuration>Windows Server
D. Management Tab>Configuration>Site Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid plants or decorations
C. Use glossy finishes
D. Avoid high-contrast elements
E. Use earth tone paint colors
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is configuring a user to have Cisco Extension Mobility. Where is the line configured?
A. Primary Extension
B. Device Profile
C. User Configuration
D. CAPF Profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user\\’s 7945 IP
phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

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Get the latest 700-265 dumps with the Cisco Specialist 700-265 Certification Exam

Posted by admin on in Cisco, Cisco Specialist
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Test your Cisco Specialist 700-265 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three customer use cases address the best outcome? (Choose three)
A. Propose the best scalability.
B. Offer powerful and integrated products.
C. Faster threat identification
D. Deliver flexible deployment options.
E. Enhance remediation.
F. Provide complete protection.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 3
Which three points from the Threat-Centric module are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.
B. An effective security solution can help overcome ever-growing security challenges.
C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.
D. Customers require inexpensive security solutions
E. Customers are searching for security answers without interrupting productivity.
F. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat defection, through a multilayered approach.
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 4
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which two attack vectors are protected by malware protection? (Choose (two.)
A. mobile
B. campus and branch
C. email
D. cloud apps
E. voicemail
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options are small budget customer concerns? (Choose two.)
A. Products are not packaged together.
B. Too many security vendors to manage.
C. Licenses are too cheap.
D. Security budget has been shrinking
E. Multiple devices are leaving a gap in security.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which attribute does Cisco Talos possess?
A. ability to detect threats across all layers of defense
B. third-party applications integrated through comprehensive APIs
C. real-time threat intelligence
D. detection of threats communicated within 24 hours of occurrence
E. blocks threats in real time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two attack vectors are protected by remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
A. campus and branch
B. voicemail
C. cloud apps
D. email
E. mobile
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which two attack vectors are protected by email security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. endpoints
C. voicemail
D. email
E. virtual machines
F. cloud apps
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Whcih two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The administrator can configure the allow-default command to force the routing table to user only default route.
B. Is is not supported on the Cisco ASA security appliance.
C. The administrator can configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via any command to enable the RPF check to
work through HSRP routing groups.
D. The administrator can use the show cef interface command to determine whether uRPF is enable.
E. In strict mode, only one routing path can be available to reach network devices on a subnet.
Correct Answer: DE
Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

QUESTION 2
Which location for the PAC file on Cisco IronPort WSA in the default?
A. http://:9001/pacfile.pac
B. http://:8022/pacfile.pac
C. http://:9091/pacfile.pac
D. http://:8080/pacfile.pac
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which type of multicast does the Cisco ASA forward IGMP messages to the upstream router?
A. clustering
B. PIM multicast routing
C. stub multicast routing
D. multicast group concept
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have an ISE deployment with 2 nodes that are configured as PAN and MnT (Primary and Secondary), and 4 Policy
Services Nodes. How many additional PSNs can you add to this deployment?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
F. 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct regarding password encryption and integrity on a cisco IOS device?
A. With “enable secret” missing in the configuration the console session cannot get privilege access using console
password due to missing encryption
B. The “enable password” is preferred over “enable secret” as it uses a stronger encryption algorithm
C. The “service password-encryption” global command encrypts all the passwords except the CHAP secret
D. The “username secret” command encrypts the password with SHA-256 hashing
E. The “enable secret” uses MD5 for the password hashing
F. The “service password-encryption” global command performs both encryption and hashing of all the passwords
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You are troubleshooting a FlexVPN deployment. You find that while the tunnels from the spokes to the hub are in the
“up” state, communication is still broken. Upon further investigation, you determine that an ICMP echo that inrtiated from
an endpoint in the spoke site is seen by the destination endpoint in the hub site, which sends an ICMP echo reply back,
but this reply is not received on endpoint A. Your FlexVPN hub and spoke are behind a NAT device. Which option is a
possible cause of this failure?
A. UDP 500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
B. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
C. FlexVPN does not work with NAT
D. UDP 4500 is blocked outbound from the spoke or inbound on the hub
E. ESP is blocked outbound from the hub or inbound on the spoke.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Opentack project has orchestraion capabilities?
A. Cinder
B. Horizon
C. Sahara
D. Heat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following four traffic should be allowed during an unknown posture state? (Choose four)
A. Traffic from AnyConnect client, with posture module, to ASA
B. Traffic to FireAMP cloud for AMP for endpoint scan results
C. Traffic to public search engines
D. Traffic to remediation servers, if needed
E. DHCP traffic
F. DNS traffic
G. SSH traffic for network device administration
H. Traffic to ISE PSNs to which client Provisioning Protocol FQDN points
Correct Answer: DEFH

QUESTION 9
On which geographic basis can the Cisco Firepower NGFW filter traffic?
A. Source and destination country and continent
B. Source city and country
C. Source country
D. Source and destination city and country
E. Source and destination country
F. Source country and continent
Correct Answer: E
Reference

QUESTION 10
Which best practice can limit inbound TTL expiry attacks?
A. Setting the TTL value to zero
B. Setting the TTL value to more than longest path in the network
C. Setting the TTL value equal to the longest path in the network.
D. Setting the TTL value to less than the logest path in the network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two options are important considerations when you use NetFlow to obtain the full picture of network taffic?
(Choose two)
A. It monitors only TCP connections.
B. It monitors only routed traffic.
C. It monitors all traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
D. It monitors only ingress traffic on the interface on which it is deployed.
E. It is unable to monitor over time.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. One of the Windows machines in your network is experiencing a Dot1x authentication failure.
Windows machines are setup to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server configured on the switch, which is
supposed to hand over IP addresses from the 50.1.1.0/24 network, and forward AAA requests to the radius server at
161.1.7.14 using shared key “cisco”. Knowing that interface Gi0/2 on switch may receive authentication requests from
other devices and looking at the provided switch configuration, what could be the possible cause of this failure?
aaa new model
aaa authentication login NO_AUTH none
aaa authentication login vty local
aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
aaa authentication network default group radius
aaa accounting dot1x default start-stop group radius
!
username cisco privilege 15 password 0 cisco
dot1x system-auth-control
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
ip access-group Pre-Auth in
authentication host-mode multi-auth
authentication open
authentication port-control auto
dot1x pae authenticator
!
vlan 50
interface Vlan50 ip address 50.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
ip dhcp excluded-address 50.1.1.1
ip dhcp pool pc-pool
network 50.1.1.0 255.255.255.0
default-router 50.1.1.1
!
ip access-list extended Pre-Auth
permit udp any eq bootpc any eq bootps
deny ip any any
!
radius server ccie
address ipv4 161.1.7.14 auth-port 1645 acct-port 1646
key cisco
!
line con 0
login authentication NO_AUTH
line vty 0 4
login authentication vty
A. an incorrect dhcp pool is configured
B. aaa network authorization is not configured
C. an incorrect pre-authentication acl is configured
D. authentication port-control is not set on interface gi0/2
E. an incorrect radius server addresss is defined
F. aaa login authentication is not configured
G. authentication is not enabled on interface gi0/2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are the major components of a Firepower health monitor alert?
A. The severity level, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
B. A health monitor, one or more alert responses, and a remediation policy.
C. One of more health modules, the severity level, and an alert response.
D. One of more health modules, one or more alert responses, and one or more alert actions.
E. One health modules and one or more alert responses.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which feature allows an MPLS TE tunnel to be used by an IGP at the headend of the tunnel ?
A. MPLS TE Forwarding Adjacency
B. Generalized MPLS
C. Different Services traffic Engineering
D. MPLS TE link management
E. MPLS TE autoroute announce
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2

The exhibit illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between MPLS VPN inter-AS. The exhibit also
shows ASBRs exchanging VPN-IPv4 addresses. Which command is needed to change the next-hop address when
ASBR2 is not configured?
A. Redistribute command with the BGP routing process
B. Redistribute command with connected
C. Redistribute command with the IGP routing process
D. Redistribute command with static
Correct Answer: B
Figure 11-3 illustrates the exchange of VPN route and label information between autonomous systems. The only
difference is that ASBR2 is configured with the redistribute connected command, which propagates the host routes to all
PEs. The redistribute connected command is necessary because ASBR2 is not the configured to change the next hop
address.

lead4pass 400-201 exam question q2-1

Figure 11-3 Host Routes Propagated to All PEs Between Two Autonomous Systems
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/4.0/mpls/user/guide/11_isc.html

QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and
that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three MPLS Traffic-eng DS-TE models are defined by IETF standard? (Choose three)
A. GRDM
B. MAR
C. MAM
D. RDM
E. G-BAM
F. A-RDM
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
Assume two routers on the same subnet, R1 and R2, both configured for HSRP. R1 has a priority of 120. Which of the
following HSRP interface configurations will always result in the R2 becoming the primary? (Choose two.)
A. standby 1 priority 120
B. standby 1 priority 130 preempt
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 priority 120 preempt
E. standby 1 priority 110 preempt
F. standby 1 priority 110
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which two components does the LDP use to discover neighbors on a network segment? (Choose two)
A. 224.0.0.14 multicast address
B. 224.0.0.1 multicast address
C. 224.0.0.2 multicast address
D. 711 tcp port
E. 646 udp port
F. 711 udp port
G. 646 tcp port
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
A router is unable to route packets over a PPPoE link. What could be the cause of this issue?
A. incorrect IPCP connection for the agreed-upon IP address
B. incorrect dialer map profile
C. incorrect username of the PPP connection
D. incorrect access list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which transparent LAN service allows a service provider to offer Layer 2 Ethernet service to connect an enterprise in a
metro region?
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. PPP over MPLS
D. HDLC over MPLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-201 exam question q9

Why is R4 unable to install any ISIS routes in the routing table?
A. ISIS LSP has an authentication issue.
B. No DR has been elected on this segment.
C. The metric style is mismatched.
D. Circuit levels are different.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10lead4pass 400-201 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit, Which OSPFv3 redistribute configuration provides the equivalent results when redistributing from
EIGRP Pv6 onto OSPFv3 as it happens when redistributing from EIGRPv4 to OSPFv2?
A. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 redistribute connected
B. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 connected
C. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10 include-connected
D. ipv6 router ospf 10 redistribute eigrp 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two sets of configuration implements CBTS? (Choose two)
A. Create multiple MPLS TE from the same headend to the same tail-end
B. Assign a policy-map defining a CBWFQ on an MPLS TE tunnel
C. Create a master tunnel to which other tunnels can be members
D. Create two bandwidth pools a global pool and a pool
E. Create a PBR to use multiple MPLS TE tunnels according to the EXP value
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid
misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in
originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following IOS commands can detect whether the SQL slammer virus propagates in your networks?
A. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69 log
B. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434 log
C. access-list 110 permit any any udp eq 69
D. access-list 100 permit any any udp eq 1434
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UCS Manager account is the default user account, which cannot be deleted or modified?
A. admin
B. superuser
C. super user
D. root
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following SAN devices provides an IOA feature?
A. Cisco MDS 9000 16-Port Storage Services Node
B. Cisco MDS 9100 Series Multilayer Fabric Switches
C. Cisco MDS 9200 Series Multiservice Switches
D. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on the Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two)
A. pass-through switching
B. store-and-forward switching
C. channeled uplink
D. hypervisor controlled
E. native switching
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )
A. access switch
B. Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C. distribution switch
D. spine switch
E. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Cisco Fabric Extender Technology is based on which IEEE standard?
A. 802.1BR
B. 802.1 AX
C. 802.1AB
D. 802.1BA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are
connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual
interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG

QUESTION 11
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which type of traffic is handled by the data plane?
A. packets destined for the device
B. control packets
C. transit packets
D. packets indirectly destined for the device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )
A. firewall rules
B. contracts
C. EPG
D. access policies
E. switch domains
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
Which programming languages can be used to generate the messages the API accepts?
A. PHP
B. C#
C. Java
D. Ruby
E. any programming language
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What is the requirement to establish connectivity in the Cisco ACI fabric between two EPGs in separate tenants?
A. scope tenant contract
B. scope private contract
C. scope intertenant contract
D. scope global contract
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What are the general steps to creating a tenant with Cisco ASA services?
A. Create the tenant, apply the graph to the contract subject, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, define
the logical device content, create the service graph.
B. Click the Create ASA Services button in the Cisco APIC Management Interface and enter the appropriate text and
information.
C. Create the tenant, define the layer 4 to Layer 7 service device cluster, create the service graph, define the logical
device content, apply the graph to the contract subject.
D. You should not create the Cisco ASA Services as a tenant; it should be created as a bridge domain.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Assuming that a service device you are integrating into the Cisco ACI is dedicated to one tenant, where should you
configure the logical device and associated concrete devices?
A. within the tenant context
B. in the device\\’s base hypervisor UI
C. within the management tenant
D. on the service device itself
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peer link 
B. vPC peer-keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Cisco ACI uses which protocol as Southbound Protocol?
A. OpFlex
B. RIP
C. OpenFlow
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
When creating EPGs in the Cisco ACI, what does this automatically create on an associated DVS?
A. network ports
B. port groups
C. ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In Cisco ACI, which two statements are true about contexts? (Choose two.)
A. A tenant can have multiple contexts.
B. A context defines a Layer 2 address domain; whereas the bridge domain defines the unique Layer 3 MAC address
domain.
C. A context is equivalent to a virtual routing and forwarding instance in the networking world.
D. A context can be associated with only one bridge domain.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
As the Cisco ACI fabric administrator for a service provider, you have deployed a multitenant environment for your
customers. Can a customer see the configuration of other customers\\’ environments and fabric configurations?
A. Yes, by default, all tenants of the fabric have administrative permissions.
B. No, read/write restrictions prevent tenants from seeing other tenants including fabric configurations.
C. No, intrusion detection devices hinder intertenant communication.
D. Yes, by extrapolating data contained in multicast encapsulated frames, a tenant can intercept data of other tenants.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In the Cisco ACI, general steps are required to create an Application Network Profile. In the Cisco ACI, general steps are
required to create an Application Network Profile. Which order should the configuration be done?
1) Create connection points between EPGs by using policy constructs.
2) Create policies to define connectivity with a permit, deny, log, and so on.
3)Create EPGs.
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 3, 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three components are directly related to the Cisco ACI automation framework? (Choose three.)
A. JSON / XML
B. LLDP
C. RESTful API
D. HTTP / HTTPS
E. STP
F. OVA
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
Which two options outline the design requirements for spine nodes in a Clos design? (Choose two.)
A. host connectivity scalability
B. spine interconnectivity
C. leaf interconnectivity
D. high 40-Gb/s port density
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Nexus atomic rollback feature is true?
A. It restores the default manufacturing configuration.
B. Each error must be acknowledged prior to implementation.
C. It is implemented only if no errors occur.
D. It is implemented and any errors are skipped.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_7rollback.htm

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the show cfs merge status name command?
A. In a successful merge, all switches in the fabric are shown separately.
B. The command shows the complete Cisco Fabric Services region database.
C. The merge master is selected based on the highest sWWN in the fabric.
D. In a successful merge, all switches are shown in a local fabric.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q3

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to combine the advantages of a trunking F port and an F port channel.
Which command on a Cisco MDS switch should be used to enable this?
A. enable port-channel
B. feature trunking-fport
C. feature fport-channel-trunk
D. port-channel trunk
E. feature fport-trunk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You successfully install VMware ESXi 5.0 U1 on a Cisco UCS B200 M3 server to a Fibre Channel LUN. When you
reboot the server, you see the message “Reboot and Select Proper Boot device or insert Boot Media in selected Boot
device and press a key.” What are the first two pieces of information you should gather to troubleshoot the boot failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Connect to the NX-OS shell via the CLI and run the show npv flogi-table command.
B. SSH to the MDS 9124 and run the show flogi database command.
C. Validate the boot target WWPN and LUN ID in the service profile.
D. Validate the correct source WWPN in the service profile vHBA definition.
E. Validate zoning for your WWPN on the Cisco MDS 9124.
F. Validate that the boot order indicates the vHBA as the first device.
G. Ensure LUN masking is correctly configured on the storage controller.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
What are the minimum number and maximum number of members that a SAN PortChannel can have?
A. 1, 16
B. 2, 16
C. 1, 32
D. 2, 32
E. 1 minimum with no maximum
F. 2 minimum with no maximum
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 9
You install a new DIMM in a Cisco UCS C-Series standalone rack server and that DIMM is not recognized by the server.
What actions do you take to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two)
A. Remove an old DIMM from the blue memory slot and install the new DIMM there.
B. Verify that the DIMM has been qualified to work on Cisco UCS servers.
C. Return the DIMM for a new replacement.
D. Remove and dispose of the bad DIMM.
E. Verify that the DIMM is in a slot that supports an active CPU.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the
following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is a symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity. What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q11

Which conditions can trigger on a Cisco Nexus device running FabricPath?
A. A switch connected to the Cisco Nexus device is running RSTP instead of STP.
B. A BPDU with bridge priority set to 61140 is received by the switch edge port.
C. The switch edge port in the STP domain is not configured as root.
D. VLAN is configured incorrectly on port-channel 100.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer\\’s representatives want to know
how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command
is useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issue test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. When this configuration is entered on a fabric interconnect, which traffic is added as a source for a
monitoring session?lead4pass 300-180 exam question q13

A. the ingress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
B. the ingress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
C. the egress traffic on uplink port 1 on slot 3
D. the egress traffic on uplink port 3 on slot 1
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the default MAC address for the distributed gateway in the Cisco ACI Fabric is true?
A. There is no default MAC address.
B. A custom MAC address must be configured under each bridge domain.
C. The default MAC address is 00 11;BD:F9:88:0C.
D. The default MAC address is 00:22:BD:F8:19:FF.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A user must upgrade their Cisco ACI Fabric In which order should they upgrade?
A. It will always be the switches first and the APICs second.
B. It will always be the APICs first and the switches second.
C. It will always depend on the specifics of the software release.
D. It does not matter which you upgrade first (ARC/Switch) or second (APIC/Switch)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two actions occur when an EPG is being validated on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. IDs assignment validation
B. VLAN validation
C. path validation
D. BD, CTX configured validation
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about contract policy enforcement are true? (Choose two)
A. The class ID (or PCTag) of the source EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fsbric.
B. Contracts are always enforced m the ingress leaf
C. The class ID (or PCTag) of the destination EPG is inserted by the ingress leaf into any packets going into the fabric
D. Contracts are sometimes enforced in the ingress leaf and sometimes in the egress leaf.
E. Contracts are always enforced m the egress leaf
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two DMEs are running on a leaf switch? (Choose two.)
A. policy element
B. appliance director
C. spine manager
D. event manager
E. topology manager
F. policy manager
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 8
Which action is needed on a Cisco UCS to make ACI dynamic discovery work?
A. Enable VLAN grouping on the fabric interconnect uplinks.
B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Policy on the Cisco UCSM vNICs
C. Forward the infrastructure VLAN toward the ESX.
D. Use MTU 9000.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What does the acronym OBFL stand for?
A. Onboard Failure Logging
B. Out of band Failure Logic
C. Onboard Forwarding Logic
D. Oversubscription Forwarding Level
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A VMM endpoint off of a UCSB is unable to hit its anycast gateway, but the MAC address of the VM can be seen in one
of the fabric interconnects Wh1Ch option is the cause of the issue?
A. The active NIC on the host has gone down and the host has not yet failed over.
B. There is no native VLAN configured within the data path of the Cisco UCS.
C. LLDP is not enabled in the vSwitch policies.
D. The VLAN tag is being changed at the vNIC or uplink port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
At which point during VMM integration do you need to create the vDS switch within vCenter?
A. when starting up the VM
B. No need to create the vDS, the Cisco APIC controller does that automatically.
C. after assigning the EPG to the VMM controller
D. before defining the VLAN pool that is assigned to the VMM controller
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco UCS policy is required for VM endpoints to be discovered by the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. LAN connectivity policy
B. network control policy
C. dynamic vNIC connection policy
D. LACP policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two statements about when the ARP request/response is not set to flooding on an Cisco ACI Fabric are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Static endpoint entries can be configured under the Tenant Networking section of the Cisco ACI Ul for silent hosts to
communicate with each other.
B. When the ARP originator and ARP target are known to the proxy, forwarding can no longer occur using the proxy
because the source and destination are now known
C. When an ARP target device responds, a response is sent to the proxy, which has an entry (or the ARP originator, so
it is then forwarded to the leaf where ARP originator resides.
D. When ARP response is known by the proxy, the ARP is forwarded from the leaf that received the ARP to the spine,
and onto the leaf where the ARP target resides.
E. The proxy age time has no limit If the target of the ARP has not sourced a frame for some lime, the entry remains
indefinite because this i$ the only way forwarding can work between silent hosts.
Correct Answer: CE

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