Cisco CCNP Enterprise Core Exam Solution | Lead4Pass 350-401 dumps

350-401 exam

The Cisco 350-401 ENCOR certification exam is specifically designed to assess your expertise in implementing core enterprise networking technologies at Cisco.

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FromNumber of exam questionsLast updatedView answer
Lead4Pass15350-401 dumpsGO
Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

latest 350-401 exam questions 1

A. Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B. Change the remote-as number to 192 168.100.11.

C. Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D. Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Verify answer

The EBGP neighbor for R1 is in the AS 6500, and not the same AS 5500

Question 2:

Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

A. vBond

B. vEdge

C. vSmart

D. vManange

Verify answer

The primary components for the Cisco SD-WAN solution consist of the vManage network management system (management plane), the vSmart controller (control plane), the vBond orchestrator (orchestration plane), and the vEdge router (data plane).

+

vManage -This centralized network management system provides a GUI interface to easily monitor, configure, and maintain all Cisco SD-WAN devices and links in the underlay and overlay network.

+

vSmart controller -This software-based component is responsible for the centralized control plane of the SD-WAN network. It establishes a secure connection to each vEdge router and distributes routes and policy information via the Overlay Management Protocol (OMP), acting as a route reflector. It also orchestrates the secure data plane connectivity between the vEdge routers by distributing crypto key information, allowing for a very scalable, IKE-less architecture.

+

vBond orchestrator -This software-based component performs the initial authentication of vEdge devices and orchestrates vSmart and vEdge connectivity. It also has an important role in enabling the communication of devices that sit behind Network Address Translation (NAT).

+

vEdge router -This device, available as either a hardware appliance or software-based router, sits at a physical site or in the cloud and provides secure data plane connectivity among the sites over one or more WAN transports. It is responsible for traffic forwarding, security, encryption, Quality of Service (QoS), routing protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and more.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf

Question 3:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from diet 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

latest 350-401 exam questions 3

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 4:

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:

latest 350-401 exam questions 4

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?

A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205

B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205

C. configure dns-server 172.16.50.5

D. configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

Verify answer

172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type + Length + Value. The type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses times

4 in hex. Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2 * 4 = 8 =

0x08. The IP addresses translate to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”

Reference: Click

Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).

Question 5:

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

A. EIRP

B. dBi

C. RSSI

D. SNR

Verify answer

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna. This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries. In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

Question 6:

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

latest 350-401 exam questions 6

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 7:

If the AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

A. 6 dBm

B. 14 dBm

C. 17 dBm

D. 20 dBm

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/23231-powervalues-23231.html

Question 8:

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

A. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

B. Configure a local username with privilege level 15.

C. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.

D. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.

Verify answer

Question 9:

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A. WPA2 Personal

B. WPA3 Enterprise

C. WPA3 Personal

D. WPA2 Enterprise

Verify answer

WPA3-Personal provides the following key advantages:

Creates a shared secret that is different for each SAE authentication.

Protects against brute force “dictionary” attacks and passive attacks.

Provides forward secrecy. <–Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/catalyst-9100ax-access-points/wpa3-dep-guide-og.pdf

WPA3 Personal provides forward secrecy.

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/wpa3-bringing-robust-security-for-wi-fi-networks

Question 10:

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor

B. broadcasting on the local subnet

C. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain

D. DHCP Option 43

E. querying other APs

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/119286-lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html#backinfo

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-401 exam questions 11

A GRE tunnel has been created between HO and BR routers. What is the tunnel IP on the HQ router?

A. 10.111.111.1

B. 10.111.111.2

C. 209.165.202.130

D. 209.165.202.134

Verify answer

In the above output, the IP address of “209.165.202.130” is the tunnel source IP while the IP 10.111.1.1 is the tunnel IP address.

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-401 exam questions 12

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Verify answer

TCKOON is right the image is missing the channel-group 1 mode active statement but if you google it you will find the right picture.

Question 13:

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

A. egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B. ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C. egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D. ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

Verify answer

During operation, an Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) sends periodic Map-Register messages to all its configured map servers.

Question 14:

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A. IPsec

B. Basic Auth

C. GRE

D. OAuth 2.0

Verify answer

Question 15:

An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address to the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel interface?

A. (config-if)#tunnel destination

B. (config-if)#keepalive

C. (config-if)#ip mtu

D. (config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss

Verify answer

A GRE interface definition includes:

+ An IPv4 address on the tunnel + A tunnel source + A tunnel destination

Below is an example of how to configure a basic GRE tunnel:

interface Tunnel 0 IP address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source fa0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.0.2

In this case the “IPv4 address on the tunnel” is 10.10.10.1/24 and “sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface” is the command “tunnel source fa0/0”. Therefore it only needs a tunnel destination, which is 172.16.0.2.

Note: A multiple GRE (mGRE) interface does not require a tunnel destination address.


Verify answer

NumberQ1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
AnswersDDBAADACCBDACCDA

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Cisco CCNP Security Core Exam Solution | Lead4Pass 350-701 dumps

350-701 exam

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FromTypeAnswersLast updated
Lead4PassFreeView350-701 dumps
Question 1:

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

A. phishing

B. slow loris

C. pharming

D. SYN flood


Question 2:

An administrator is configuring N IP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname


Question 3:

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A. Cisco FTD

B. Cisco AnyConnect

C. Cisco CTA

D. Cisco ASA

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cognitive- threat-analytics/at-a-glance-c45-736555.pdf


Question 4:
350-701 exam questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

A. imports requests

B. HTTP authorization

C. HTTP authentication

D. plays dent ID


Question 5:

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A. Mail Submission Agent

B. Mail Transfer Agent

C. Mail Delivery Agent

D. Mail User Agent

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/SBA/February2013/Cisco_SBA_BN_ EmailSecurityUsingCiscoESADeploymentGuide-Feb2013.pdf


Question 6:

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A. HTTPS file upload site

B. Microsoft Windows network shares

C. SQL database injections

D. encrypted SMTP


Question 7:

What is a description of micro-segmentation?

A. Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B. Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C. Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D. Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container


Question 8:

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Select and Place:

350-701 exam questions 8

Correct Answer:

350-701 exam questions 8-1

Question 9:

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

A. transparent user identification

B. SOCKS proxy services

C. web usage controls

D. user session restrictions


Question 10:

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A. intent-based APIs

B. automation adapters

C. domain integration

D. application adapters


Question 11:

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A. Malware installation

B. Command-and-control communication

C. Network footprinting

D. Data exfiltration

Reference: https://www.netsurion.com/articles/5-types-of-dns-attacks-and-how-to-detect-them


Question 12:

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. virus

B. NTP amplification

C. ping of death

D. HTTP flood


Question 13:

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into DNAC with the native API?

A. lastSyncTime and paid

B. POST and name

C. userSudiSerialNos and devicelnfo

D. GET and serialNumber

To add a device to Cisco DNA Center with the native API, the API method used is POST which creates a new resource. One of the required attributes to add a device is the “name” attribute, which is used to specify the name of the device being added. The device name should be unique and it\’s used to identify the device within the Cisco DNA Center platform.

A GET request is used to retrieve information from a resource. “SerialNumber” and “userSudiSerialNos” are attributes used to identify a device but they are not required to add a device to Cisco DNA Center, they are needed to retrieve specific device information. “lastSyncTime” is an attribute used to indicate when the device last synced with Cisco DNA Center, it\’s not required to add a device. “pid” is an attribute used to identify a device\’s product ID, and it\’s not required to add a device.


Question 14:

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A. flow-export event-type

B. policy-map

C. access-list

D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E. access-group


Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

Select and Place:

350-701 exam questions 15

Correct Answer:

350-701 exam answers 15

Verify answer:

Questions:Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
Answers:DCECCBBAIMAGEAADABABIMAGE

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Lead4Pass 350-501 dumps Latest Update for the 2023 Certification Exam

The latest update Lead4Pass 350-501 dumps contain 432 latest certification exam questions and answers for the 2023 CCNP Service Provider certification exam.

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Cisco 350-501 certification practice questions shared from Lead4Pass

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Free15Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)350-501
Question 1:

What are two features of stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)

A. It uses address overloading.

B. It provides 1:N translations, so it supports an unlimited number of endpoints.

C. It requires IPv4-translatable IPv6 address assignments.

D. It requires the IPv6 hosts to use either DHCPv6-based address assignments or manual address assignments.

E. It provides 1:1 translation, so it supports a limited number of endpoints.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/xe-16/nat-xe-16-book/iadnat-stateful-nat64.html

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 2

Routers P4 and P5 receive the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the ISP via eBGP peering. P4 is the primary Internet gateway router, and P5 is its backup. P5 is already advertising a default route into the OSPF domain. Which configuration must be applied to P4 so that it advertises a default route into OSPF and becomes the primary Internet gateway for the network?

A. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 2end

B. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 1end

C. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastredistribute bgp 65500 metric 40 metric-type 1end

D. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate always metric 40 metric-type 1end

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which OS uses a distributed subsystem architecture?

A. IOS XE

B. IOS

C. IOS XR

D. CatOS

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 4

An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2. For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.

Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE

B. send-labels on the ASBRs

C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs

D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs

E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 5

Router R1 is reporting that its BGP neighbor adjacency to router R2 is down, but its state is Active as shown. Which configuration must be applied to routers R1 and R2 to fix the problem?

A. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 update-source Loopback0

R2

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 update-source Loopback0

B. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

R2

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

C. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

R2

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

D. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

R2

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer needs to implement the QOS mechanism on the customer\’s network as some applications going over the internet are slower than others.

Which two actions must the engineer perform when implementing traffic shaping on the network in order to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Configure a queue with sufficient memory to buffer excess packets.

B. Configure the token values in bytes.

C. Implement packet remarking for excess traffic.

D. Implement a scheduling function to handle delayed packets.

E. Configure a threshold over which excess packets are discarded.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 7:

An engineer must apply an 802.1ad-compliant configuration to a new switchport with these requirements:

1.

The switchport must tag all trame when it enters the port

2.

The switchport Is expected to provide the same level of service to traffic from any customer VLAN

Which configuration must the engineer use?

A. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qencapsulation ISLbridge-domain 12

B. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni c-portservice instance 12 encapsulation dot1qrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

C. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni s-portservice instance 12 encapsulation defaultrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

D. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad nni service instance 12 encapsulation dot1adbridge-domain 12

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/cether/configuration/xe-3s/asr903/16-12-1/b-ce-xe-16-12-asr900/m_ce_802_1ad_900.html

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 8

An administrator working for a large ISP must connect its two POP sites to provide internet connectivity to its customers. Which configuration must the administrator perform to establish an iBGP session between routers PE1 on POP site 1 and PE2 on POP site 2?

A. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#no neighbor 172.18.10.1 shutdown PE2(config-router)#end

B. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#no neighbor 172.19.10.10 shutdown PE1(config-router)#end

C. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE1(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.19.10.10 activate PE1(config-router-af)#end

D. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE2(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.18.10.1 activate PE2(config-router-af)#end

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

In a service provider network, a NOC engineer identifies an interface that flaps continuously. This interface connects to an EBGP peer. Which feature can reduce this instability in the service provider network?

A. Non-Stop Forwarding

B. BGP PIC

C. IGP Prefix Prioritization

D. IP Event Dampening

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 10

A large organization is merging the network assets of a recently acquired competitor with one of its own satellite offices in the same geographic area. The newly acquired network is running a different routing protocol than the company\’s primary network. As part of the merger, a network engineer implemented this route map. Which task must the engineer perform to complete the implementation?

A. Attach the route map to the redistribution command to manipulate the routes as they are shared.

B. Enable metric-style wide to allow the use of extended metrics from the protocols.

C. Configure an additional route map sequence to override the implicit deny at the end of the route map.

D. Attach the route map to an IS-IS network statement to advertise the routes learned on this interface to IS-IS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

After a series of unexpected device failures on the network, a Cisco engineer is deploying NSF on the network devices so that packets continue to be forwarded during switchovers. The network devices reside in the same building, but they are physically separated into two different data centers. Which task must the engineer perform as part of the deployment?

A. Implement an L2VPN with the failover peer to share state information between the active and standby devices.

B. Implement OSPF to maintain the link-state database during failover.

C. Implement VRFs and specify the forwarding instances that must remain active during failover.

D. Implement Cisco Express Forwarding to provide forwarding during failover.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

FRR is configured on a network. What occurs when the headend router on the path is alerted to a link failure over IGP?

A. LSP attempts fast switching on the backup path until the primary path returns to the active state.

B. The headend router uses a signaled LSP to bypass the failure point.

C. A new backup tunnel is established past the PLR to pass through the protected nodes.

D. Backup tunnel is established and intersects with the primary tunnel at the headend.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

A router RP is configured to perform MPLS LDP graceful restart.

Which three steps are included when the RP sends an LDP initialization message to a neighbor to establish an LDP session? (Choose three.)

A. Learn from Neighbor (N) flag, set to 1

B. Recovery Time field

C. Type-9 LSA

D. Reconnect Timeout field

E. Graceful restart capability in OPEN message

F. Learn from Network (L) flag, set to 1

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ha/configuration/xe-16-8/mp-ha-xe-16-8-book/nsf-sso-mpls-ldp-and-ldp-graceful-restart.html

Question 14:

A network engineer must enable the helper router to terminate the OSPF graceful restart process if it detects any changes in the LSA.

Which command enables this feature?

A. nsf ietf helper disable

B. nsf cisco helper disable

C. nsf ietf helper strict-lsa-checking

D. nsf cisco enforce global

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/ip_route/configuration/guide/tgrhelp.html

Question 15:

Which MPLS design attribute can you use to provide Internet access to a major customer through a separate dedicated VPN?

A. The Internet gateway router is connected as a PE router to the MPLS backbone.

B. The CE router supports VRF-Lite and the full BGP routing table.

C. The Internet gateway inserts the full Internet BGP routing table into the Internet access VPN.

D. The customer that needs the Internet access service is assigned to the same RTs as the Internet gateway.

Correct Answer: D

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350-801 certification exam questions and answers

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Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)350-801350-801 dumps
Question 1:

Which settings are needed to configure the SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. pattern usage, IPv6 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

B. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, IPv6 pattern, and description

C. pattern usage, IPv4 pattern, and SIP trunk/Route list

D. SIP trunk/Route list, description, and IPv4 pattern

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmcfg/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100/CUCM_BK_C95ABA82_00_admin-guide-100_chapter_0100111.pdf

Question 2:

An engineer configures Cisco Unified Communications Manager to prevent toll fraud. At which two points does the engineering block the pattern in Cisco Unified CM to complete this task? (Choose two.)

A. route pattern

B. route group

C. translation pattern

D. partition

E. CSS

Correct Answer: CE

Question 3:

Which open-standard protocol is the basis for the Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol?

A. JSON

B. SIP

C. XML

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:
350-801 dumps questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. You deploy Mobile and Remote Access for Jabber and discover that Jabber for Windows does not register to Cisco Unified Communication Manager while outside of the office. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Server 4.2.2.2 is not a valid DNS server.

B. The DNS record should be created for _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com.

C. The DNS record should be changed from _collab-edge._tcp.example.com to __collab-edge _tls.example.com.

D. The DNS record type should be changed from SRV to A.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide_chapter_010.html

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures fax dial-peers on a Cisco IOS gateway and finds that faxes are not working correctly Which change should be made to resolve this issue?

350-801 dumps questions 5

A. codec g723ar63

B. codec g729br81

C. codec g726r32

D. codec g711ulaw

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.

B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.

C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.

D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which two functions are provided by Cisco Expressway Series? (Choose two.)

A. interworking of SIP and H.323

B. endpoint registration

C. intercluster extension mobility

D. voice and video transcoding

E. voice and video conference

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X8-11/Cisco-Meeting-Server-2-4-with-Cisco-Expressway-Deployment-Guide_X8-11-4.pdf

Question 8:

How does an administrator make a Cisco IP phone display the last 10 digits of the calling number when the call is in the connected state, and also display the calling number in the E.164 format within call history on the phone?

A. Configure a translation pattern that has a Calling Party Transform Mask of XXXXXXXXXX.

B. On the inbound SIP trunk, change Significant Digits to 10.

C. Change the service parameter Apply Transformations On Remote Number to True.

D. Configure a calling party transformation pattern that keeps only the last 10 digits.

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 law with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports a packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating?

A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software

B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager

C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software

D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager

E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Expressway-C

C. Cisco UCM

D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-14_0/cjab_b_deploy-jabber-on-premises-129_chapter_010000.html

Exam D

Question 11:

An administrator would like to set several Cisco Jabber configuration parameters to only apply to mobile clients (iOS and Android). How does the administrator accomplish this with Cisco Jabber 12.9 and Cisco UCM 12.5?

A. Assign the desired configuration file to “Mobile” Jabber Client Configuration in the Service Profile.

B. Deploy jabber-config-user.xml on iOS and Android devices.

C. Upload the jabber-config.enc file to TFTP

D. Create a user profile in Jabber Policies.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

What is a software-based media resource that is provided by the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application?

A. video conference bridge

B. auto-attendant

C. transcoder

D. annunciator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/media.html

Question 13:

Users dial a 9 before a 10-digit phone number to make an off-net call All 11 digits are sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element before going out to the PSTN The PSTN provider accepts only 10 digits. Which configuration is needed on the Cisco Unified Border Element for calls to be successful?

350-801 dumps questions 13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which two steps should be taken to a provision after the Self-Provisioning feature was configured for end users?

A. Dial the self-provisioning IVR extension and associate the phone with an end user.

B. Plug the phone into the network.

C. Ask the Cisco UCM administrator to associate the phone with an end user.

D. Enter the settings menu on the phone and press *,*,# (star, star, pound).

E. Dial the hunt pilot extension and associate the phone with an end user.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

An engineer configures a Cisco Unified Border Element and must ensure that the codecs negotiated to meet the ITSP requirements. The ITSP supports G.711ulaw and G.729 for audio and H.264 for video. The preferred voice codec is G.711. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 100

B. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

C. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g711ulaw codec preference 2 g729r8 video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

D. Voice class codec 10 codec preference 1 g729r8 codec preference 2 g711ulaw video codec h264

dial-peer voice 101 VoIP

session protocol sipv2

destination el64-pattern-map 1

voice-class codec 10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/cube/configuration/cube-book/cube-codec-basic.html


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Part of Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

FromNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam code
Lead4Pass15Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) & CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure & CCIE Enterprise Wireless350-401
QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3 from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration setting achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any
router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permits 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer

B. monitor

C. bridge

D. local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 3

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 4

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0.

Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

Correct Answer: A

Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR while Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR. Therefore we have to set the two Gi0/0 interfaces to a point-to-point or point-to-multipoint network to ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur.

QUESTION 5:

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that configures BGP according to the topology. Not all options are used, and some options may be used twice.
Select and Place:

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 6

Correct Answer:

latest cisco 350-401 exam answers 6

QUESTION 7:

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on devices with similar network settings?

A. Command Runner

B. Template Editor

C. Application Policies

D. Authentication Template

Correct Answer: B

Cisco DNA Center provides an interactive editor called Template Editor to author CLI templates. Template Editor is a centralized CLI management tool to help design a set of device configurations that you need to build devices in a branch.

When you have a site, office, or branch that uses a similar set of devices and configurations, you can use Template Editor to build generic configurations and apply the configurations to one or more devices in the branch.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/1-3/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_3_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 8:

An engineer must export the contents of the device’s object in JSON format. Which statement must be used?

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 8

A. json.repr(Devices)

B. json.dumps(Devices)

C. json.prints(Devices)

D. json.loads(Devices)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

A. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

B. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

C. Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)#enrollment terminal Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch

D. Core-Switch(config)#ip http secure-trust point Core-Switch Core-Switch(config)#crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 10
latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 10-1

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.

B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound

C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.

D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 11

Which command must be applied to Routed to bring the GRE tunnel to an up/up state?

A. Router1(config)#interface tunnel0

B. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1

C. Router1(config-if)#tunnel mode gre multipoint

D. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 12

Correct Answer:

latest cisco 350-401 exam answers 12

QUESTION 13:

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down.

Which script must the engineer apply?

latest cisco 350-401 exam questions 13

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


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[Updated 2022] Latest Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Question 1:

What is the element of Cisco Collaboration infrastructure that allows Jabber clients outside of the network to register in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and use its resources?

A. Cisco IM and Presence node

B. Cisco Unified Border Element

C. Cisco Expressway

D. Cisco Prime Collaboration Provisioning server

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 2:

A Cisco Unity Connection administrator must set a voice mailbox so that it can be accessed from a secondary device. Which configuration on the voice mailbox makes this change?

A. Attempt Forward routing rule

B. Alternate Extensions

C. Alternate Names

D. Mobile User

Correct Answer: B

 

Question 3:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is required for SIP MWI integrations?

A. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Inbound” on the SIP trunk.

B. Enable “Accept presence subscription” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

C. Enable “Accept unsolicited notification” on the SIP Trunk Security Profile.

D. Select “Redirecting Diversion Header Delivery – Outbound” on the SIP trunk.

Correct Answer: C

 

Question 4:

An engineer troubleshoots poor voice quality on multiple calls. After looking at packet captures, the engineer notices high levels of jitter. Which two areas does the engineer check to prevent jitter? (Choose two.)

A. The network meets bandwidth requirements.

B. MTP is enabled on the SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Border Element.

C. Cisco UBE manages voice traffic, not data traffic.

D. All devices use wired connections instead of wireless connections.

E. Voice packets are classified and marked.

Correct Answer: AE

 

Question 5:

A customer has Cisco Unity Connections that is integrated with LDAP. As a Unity Connection administrator, you have received a request to change the first name of the VM user. Where must the change be performed?

A. Cisco Unity Connection

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager end-user

C. Active Directory

D. Cisco IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

[Updated 2022] Get more up-to-date Cisco 350-801 exam questions and answers

Share Cisco 350-801 exam questions for free

QUESTION 1:

A customer wants a video conference with five Cisco TelePresence IX5000 Series systems. Which media resource is necessary for the design to fully utilize the immersive functions?

A. Cisco PVDM4-128
B. software conference bridge on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Cisco Webex Meetings Server
D. Cisco Meeting Server

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q2

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.

How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to an MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.

C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.

E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3:

An engineer is configuring a BOT device for a Jabber user in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Which phone type must be selected?

A. third-party SIP device
B. Cisco Dual Mode for iPhone
C. Cisco Dual Mode for Android
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/11_5/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deploymentinstallation-guide-cisco-jabber115/CJAB_BK_D00D8CBD_00_deployment-installation-guideciscojabber115_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4:

What is the major difference between the two possible Cisco IM and Presence high-availability modes?

A. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, and it also provides load balancing.

B. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover only for manually generated failovers. Active/standby mode provides an unconfigured standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

C. Balanced mode provides user load balancing and user failover in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

D. Balanced mode does not provide user load balancing, but it provides in the event of an outage. Active/standby mode provides an always-on standby node in the event of an outage, but it does not provide load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5:

Calls are being delivered to the end-user in a globalized format. Where does an engineer configure the calling number into a localized format?

A. route pattern
B. service parameters
C. IP phone
D. gateway

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6:

Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence backups is true?

A. Backups should be scheduled during off-peak hours to avoid system performance issues.
B. Backups are saved as .tar files and encrypted using the web administrator account.
C. Backups are saved as unencrypted .tar files.
D. Backups are not needed for subscriber Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco IM and Presence servers.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/11_5_1_SU1/Administration/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1/cucm_b_administration-guide-1151su1_chapter_01010.html#CUCM_TK_S7FC26D5_00

 

QUESTION 7:

An engineer with ID012345678 must build an international dial plan in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which action should be taken when building a variable-length route pattern?

A. reduce the T302 timer to less than 4 seconds
B. configure a single route pattern for international calls
C. create a second route pattern followed by the # wildcard
D. set up all international route patterns to 0.!

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8:

Which field of a Real-Time Transport Protocol packet allows receiving devices to detect lost packets?

A. CSRC (Contributing Source ID)
B. Timestamp
C. Sequence number
D. SSRC (Synchronization identifier)

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9:

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameter should be enabled to disconnect a multiparty call when the call initiator hangs up?

A. Drop Ad Hoc Conference
B. H.225 Black Setup Destination
C. Block OffNet To OffNet Transfer
D. Enterprise Feature Access Code for Conference

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/10_0_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-system-guide-100/CUCM_BK_SE5FCFB6_00_cucm-systemguide100_chapter_011000.html#CUCM_TK_DFC66444_00

 

QUESTION 10:

lead4pass 350-801 practice test q10

Refer to the exhibit. When a UC Administrator is troubleshooting DTMF negotiated by this SIP INVITE, which two messages should be examined next to further troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A. REGISTER
B. UPDATE
C. PACK
D. NOTIFY
E. SUBSCRIBE

Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11:

How can an engineer determine location-based CAC bandwidth requirements for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Set the requirements in the service parameters.
B. Add the requirements for each audio and video codec and how many calls must be supported.
C. Execute the Resource Reservation Protocol to return location-based requirements.
D. Calculate the number of calls against the license for Cisco Unified Border Element to determine calls per location.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12:

Which command is used in the Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway to configure the voice T1/E1 controller to provide clocking?

A. clock source line
B. Cisco IOS XE TDM gateway T1/E1 controller cannot provide clocking.
C. clocking source internal
D. clocking source network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/interfaces/NIM/software/configuration/guide/4gent1-e1-nim-guide.html

 

QUESTION 13:

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 350-801 practice test q13

An engineer verifies the configuration of an MGCP gateway. The commands are already configured. Which command is necessary to enable MGCP?

A. Device(config)# mgcp enable
B. Device(config)# ccm-manager enable
C. Device (config) # com-manager active
D. Device (config)# mgcp

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
A. IP and Domain Reputation Center
B. File Reputation Center
C. IP Slock List Center
D. AMP Reputation Center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?
A. SDN controller and the cloud
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the management solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
A. multiple context mode
B. user deployment of Layer 3 networks
C. IPv6
D. clustering
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa96/asav/quick-start-book/asav-96-qsg/asavaws.html

QUESTION 4
What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD?
A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not.
B. LDAP provides for faster authentication
C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot.
D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain
E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface.
What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 8
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
A. Cisco Firepower
B. Cisco Umbrella
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. NGIPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which
allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. External Threat Feeds
C. Cisco Threat Grid
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. AES is less secure than 3DES.
B. AES is more secure than 3DES.
C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html

QUESTION 12
Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without
needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
A. PaaS
B. XaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device?
A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations.
B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF.
C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF.
D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.)
A. YAML
B. Apache Arrow
C. gRPC
D. binary
E. JSON
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when
NETCONF is implemented?
A. JSON-RPC
B. XML
C. YAML
D. JSON
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev
ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple
mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand
ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device%
20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message
%20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false

QUESTION 4
When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP?
A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000
B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000
C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000
D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf

QUESTION 5
The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method
perform on the device? (Choose two.)
A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device.
B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit
configuration mode.
C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device.
D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device.
E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the
device.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.)
A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml
B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml
C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML
D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0
E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the
Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable?
A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0
D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the
right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9
An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework
because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does
gNMI use? (Choose two.)
A. gNMI notifications with XML
B. protobuf notifications with XML
C. protobuf payload
D. JSON payload
E. gNMI notifications with JSON
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p
ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ
DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m
essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false

QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.)
A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic.
B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution.
C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs.
D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools.
E. It automatically discovers all deployed services.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf

QUESTION 11
You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN.
Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.)
A. Create the VLAN service template in XML.
B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm.
C. Start the VLAN Python VM.
D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG.
E. Compile the VLAN NED.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is
used?
A. sshmiko
B. paramiko.agent
C. libssh2
D. netmiko
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html

QUESTION 13

lead4pass 300-535 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”?
A. //employee[1]/firstName/value()
B. //employee[0]/firstName/value()
C. //employee[1]/firstName/text()
D. //employee[0]/firstName/text()
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROPlead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

QUESTION 5lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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Lead4Pass has 7 years of exam experience! A number of professional Cisco exam experts! Update exam questions throughout the year! The most complete exam questions and answers! The safest buying experience! The greatest free sharing of exam practice questions and answers!
Our goal is to help more people pass the Cisco exam! Exams are a part of life, but they are important! In the study, you need to sum up the study! Trust Lead4Pass to help you pass the exam 100%!
about lead4pass

Summarize:

This blog shares the latest Cisco 300-515 exam dumps, 300-515 exam questions and answers! 300-515 pdf, 300-515 exam video!
You can also practice the test online! Lead4pass is the industry leader!
Select Lead4Pass 300-515 exams Pass Cisco 300-515 exams “Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SVPI)”. Help you successfully pass the 300-515 exam.

ps.

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