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QUESTION 1 A company is required to move its human resources application to the cloud to reduce capital expenses. The IT team does a feasibility analysis and learns the application requires legacy infrastructure and cannot be moved to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate cloud migration approach for the company? A. Lift and shift B. Hybrid C. Rip and replace D. In-place upgrade Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A cloud systems administrator needs to log in to a remote Linux server that is hosted in a public cloud. Which of the following protocols will the administrator MOST likely use? A. HTTPS B. RDP C. Secure Shell D. Virtual network computing Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A project manager must inform the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of the additional resources necessary to migrate services to the cloud successfully. Which of the following cloud assessments would be MOST appropriate to use for the recommendation? A. Feasibility study B. Gap analysis C. Future requirements D. Baseline report Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 An organization wants to migrate a locally hosted application to a PaaS model. The application currently runs on a 15-year-old operating system and cannot be upgraded. Which of the following should the organization perform to ensure the application will be supported in the cloud? A. Risk register B. Feasibility study C. Benchmarks D. Baseline Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A company has been running tests on a newly developed algorithm to increase the responsiveness of the application. The company\\’s monthly bills for the testing have been much higher than expected. Which of the following documents should the company examine FIRST? A. Memory report B. Compute report C. Network report D. Storage report Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which of the following types of risk is MOST likely to be associated with moving all data to one cloud provider? A. Vendor lock-in B. Data portability C. Network connectivity D. Data sovereignty Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered? A. Time to market B. Operating expenditure fees C. BYOL costs D. Human capital Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A company is moving to the cloud and wants to enhance the provisioning of computing, storage, security, and networking. Which of the following will be leveraged? A. Infrastructure as code B. Infrastructure templates C. Infrastructure orchestration D. Infrastructure automation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which of the following services would restrict connectivity to cloud resources? A. Security lists B. Firewall C. VPN D. Intrusion detection system Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which of the following is an example of outsourcing administration in the context of the cloud? A. Managed services B. Audit by a third party C. Community support D. Premium support Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A cloud administrator configures a server to insert an entry into a log file whenever an administrator logs in to the server remotely. Which of the following BEST describes the type of policy is used? A. Audit B. Authorization C. Hardening D. Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which of the following can be used by a client\\’s finance department to identify the cost of cloud use in a public cloud environment shared by different projects and departments? A. Reserved instances B. Service level agreement C. Resource tagging D. RFI from the CSP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 A company with critical resources in the cloud needs to ensure data is available in multiple data centers around the world. Which of the following BEST meets the company\\’s needs? A. Auto-scaling B. Geo-redundancy C. Disaster recovery D. High availability Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 A company wants to extend its help desk availability beyond business hours. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) decides to augment the help desk with a third-party service that will answer calls and provide Tier 1 problem resolution, such as password resets and remote assistance. The security administrator implements the following firewall change: The administrator provides the appropriate path and credentials to the third-party company. Which of the following technologies is MOST likely being used to provide access to the third company?
A. LDAP B. WAYF C. OpenID D. RADIUS E. SAML Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A systems administrator establishes a CIFS share on a UNIX device to share data to Windows systems. The security authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. Windows users are stating that they cannot authenticate to the UNIX share. Which of the following settings on the UNIX server would correct this problem? A. Refuse LM and only accept NTLMv2 B. Accept only LM C. Refuse NTLMv2 and accept LM D. Accept only NTLM Correct Answer: A In a Windows network, NT LAN Manager (NTLM) is a suite of Microsoft security protocols that provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality to users. NTLM is the successor to the authentication protocol in Microsoft LAN Manager (LANMAN or LM), an older Microsoft product, and attempts to provide backward compatibility with LANMAN. NTLM version 2 (NTLMv2), which was introduced in Windows NT 4.0 SP4 (and natively supported in Windows 2000), enhances NTLM security by hardening the protocol against many spoofing attacks and adding the ability for a server to authenticate to the client. This question states that the security authentication on the Windows domain is set to the highest level. This will be NTLMv2. Therefore, the answer to the question is to allow NTLMv2 which will enable the Windows users to connect to the UNIX server. To improve security, we should disable the old and insecure LM protocol as it is not used by the Windows computers.
QUESTION 3 An administrator wants to enable policy-based flexible mandatory access controls on an open-source OS to prevent abnormal application modifications or executions. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this? A. Access control lists B. SELinux C. IPtables firewall D. HIPS Correct Answer: B The most common open-source operating system is LINUX. Security-Enhanced Linux (SELinux) was created by the United States National Security Agency (NSA) and is a Linux kernel security module that provides a mechanism for supporting access control security policies, including United States Department of Defense style mandatory access controls (MAC). NSA Security-enhanced Linux is a set of patches to the Linux kernel and some utilities to incorporate a strong, flexible mandatory access control (MAC) architecture into the major subsystems of the kernel. It provides an enhanced mechanism to enforce the separation of information based on confidentiality and integrity requirements, which allows threats of tampering and bypassing of application security mechanisms to be addressed and enables the confinement of damage that can be caused by malicious or flawed applications.
QUESTION 4 A database administrator is required to adhere to and implement privacy principles when executing daily tasks. A manager directs the administrator to reduce the number of unique instances of PII stored within an organization\\’s systems to the greatest extent possible. Which of the following principles is being demonstrated? A. Administrator accountability B. PII security C. Record transparency D. Data minimization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input? A. Client-side input validation B. Stored procedure C. Encrypting credit card details D. Regular expression matching Correct Answer: D Regular expression matching is a technique for reading and validating input, particularly in web software. This question is asking about securing input fields where customers enter their credit card details. In this case, the expected input into the credit card number field would be a sequence of numbers of a certain length. We can use regular expression matching to verify that the input is indeed a sequence of numbers. Anything that is not a sequence of numbers could be malicious code.
QUESTION 6 An internal application has been developed to increase the efficiency of an operational process of a global manufacturer. New code was implemented to fix a security bug, but it has caused operations to halt. The executive team has decided fixing the security bug is less important than continuing operations. Which of the following would BEST support immediate rollback of the failed fix? (Choose two.) A. Version control B. Agile development C. Waterfall development D. Change management E. Continuous integration Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7 An insurance company has two million customers and is researching the top transactions on its customer portal. It identifies that the top transaction is currently password reset. Due to users not remembering their secret questions, a large number of calls are consequently routed to the contact center for manual password resets. The business wants to develop a mobile application to improve customer engagement in the future, continue with a single factor of authentication, minimize management overhead of the solution, remove passwords, and eliminate the contact center. Which of the following techniques would BEST meet the requirements? (Choose two.) A. Magic link sent to an email address B. Customer ID sent via push notification C. SMS with OTP sent to a mobile number D. Third-party social login E. Certificate sent to be installed on a device F. Hardware tokens sent to customers Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8 A security analyst is inspecting the pseudocode of the following multithreaded application: 1. perform daily ETL of data 1.1 validate that yesterday\\’s data model file exists 1.2 validate that today\\’s data model file does not exist 1.2 extract yesterday\\’s data model 1.3 transform the format 1.4 load the transformed data into today\\’s data model file 1.5 exit Which of the following security concerns is evident in the above pseudocode? A. Time of check/time of use B. Resource exhaustion C. Improper storage of sensitive data D. Privilege escalation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A senior network security engineer has been tasked to decrease the attack surface of the corporate network. Which of the following actions would protect the external network interfaces from external attackers performing network scanning? A. Remove contact details from the domain name registrar to prevent social engineering attacks. B. Test external interfaces to see how they function when they process fragmented IP packets. C. Enable a honeynet to capture and facilitate future analysis of malicious attack vectors. D. Filter all internal ICMP message traffic, forcing attackers to use full-blown TCP port scans against external network interfaces. Correct Answer: B Fragmented IP packets are often used to evade firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port Scanning is one of the most popular reconnaissance techniques attackers use to discover services they can break into. All machines connected to a Local Area Network (LAN) or Internet run many services that listen at well-known and not-so-well-known ports. A port scan helps the attacker find which ports are available (i.e., what service might be listing to a port). One problem, from the perspective of the attacker attempting to scan a port, is that services listening on these ports log scans. They see an incoming connection, but no data, so an error is logged. There exist a number of stealth scan techniques to avoid this. One method is a fragmented port scan. Fragmented packet Port Scan The scanner splits the TCP header into several IP fragments. This bypasses some packet filter firewalls because they cannot see a complete TCP header that can match their filter rules. Some packet filters and firewalls do queue all IP fragments, but many networks cannot afford the performance loss caused by the queuing.
QUESTION 10 A pentester must attempt to crack passwords on a windows domain that enforces strong complex passwords. Which of the following would crack the MOST passwords in the shortest time period? A. Online password testing B. Rainbow tables attack C. Dictionary attack D. Brute force attack Correct Answer: B The passwords in a Windows (Active Directory) domain are encrypted. When a password is “tried” against a system it is “hashed” using encryption so that the actual password is never sent in clear text across the communications line. This prevents eavesdroppers from intercepting the password. The hash of a password usually looks like a bunch of garbage and is typically a different length than the original password. Your password might be “shitzu” but the hash of your password would look something like “7378347eedbfdd761619451949225ec1”. To verify a user, a system takes the hash value created by the password hashing function on the client computer and compares it to the hash value stored in a table on the server. If the hashes match, then the user is authenticated and granted access. Password cracking programs work in a similar way to the login process. The cracking program starts by taking plaintext passwords, running them through a hash algorithm, such as MD5, and then compares the hash output with the hashes in the stolen password file. If it finds a match then the program has cracked the password. Rainbow Tables are basically huge sets of precomputed tables filled with hash values that are pre-matched to possible plaintext passwords. The Rainbow Tables essentially allow hackers to reverse the hashing function to determine what the plaintext password might be. The use of Rainbow Tables allow for passwords to be cracked in a very short amount of time compared with brute-force methods, however, the trade-off is that it takes a lot of storage (sometimes Terabytes) to hold the Rainbow Tables themselves.
QUESTION 11 The Chief Information Officer (CISO) is concerned that certain systems administrators will privileged access may be reading other users\\’ emails. A review of a tool\\’s output shows the administrators have used webmail to log into other users\\’ inboxes. Which of the following tools would show this type of output? A. Log analysis tool B. Password cracker C. Command-line tool D. File integrity monitoring tool Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A software development manager is running a project using agile development methods. The company cybersecurity engineer has noticed a high number of vulnerabilities have been making it into production code on the project. Which of the following methods could be used in addition to an integrated development environment to reduce the severity of the issue? A. Conduct a penetration test on each function as it is developed B. Develop a set of basic checks for common coding errors C. Adopt a waterfall method of software development D. Implement unit tests that incorporate static code analyzers Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 select id, firstname, lastname from authors User input= firstname= Hack;man lastname=Johnson Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting? A. XML injection B. Command injection C. Cross-site scripting D. SQL injection Correct Answer: D The code in the question is SQL code. The attack is a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
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QUESTION 1 Joe. a technician, receives notification that a share for production data files on the network Is encrypted. Joe suspects a cryptovirus Is active. He checks the rights of the network share to see which departments have access. He then searches the user directories of those departmental users who are looking for encrypted files. He narrows his search to a single user\\’s computer. Once the suspected source of the virus is discovered and removed from the network, which of the following should Joe do NEXT? A. Educate the end-user on safe browsing and email habits. B. Scan and remove the malware from the infected system. C. Create a system restore point and reboot the system. D. Schedule antivirus scans and performs Windows updates. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A technician has just removed malware from a Windows 7 system, but the user reports that every time they type a URL into Internet Explorer to navigate to a search engine the same standard page is being displayed on the browser. The page is asking the user to purchase antivirus software. Please resolve the problem using the available tools shown. When you have completed the simulation, please select the done button to submit your answer.
A. Please review for the detailed answer. Correct Answer: A Please check the below images for detailed steps to do:
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is used for building entry and computer access? A. Smart card B. Personal identity verification card C. Hardware tokens D. Key fobs Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which of the following technologies is used by malicious employees to obtain user passwords? A. Main-in-the-middle B. Phishing C. Tailgating D. Shoulder surfing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 A user has been receiving reply emails from many contacts but the content of the emails is not familiar and the user did not send the original messages. The user calls the help desk for assistance. Which of the following is the BEST way the technician can fix this problem? A. Perform an antivirus scan B. Perform a refresh/restore C. Perform an IDS upgrade D. Perform a reinstall of the email client Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A user wants to see the workstations present on the LAN in a workgroup environment. Which of the following settings must be enabled to make this possible? A. Turn off public folder sharing B. Turn on network discovery C. Use 128-bit encryption D. Turn on file and folder sharing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A Linux user reports that an application will not open and gives the error. Only one instance of the application may run at one time. A root administrator logs on to the device and opens a terminal. Which of the following pairs of tools will be needed to ensure no other instances of the software are currently running? A. pad and chmod B. Sudo and vi C. ls and chown D. ps and kill E. cp and rm Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A company\\’s security team has noticed a lot of unusual network traffic coming from an internal IP address. The team wants to obtain the name of the computer and then troubleshoot. Which of the following tools would BEST accomplish this task? A. nslookup B. ipconfig C. tracert D. ping Correct Answer: A New Question, pending the Answer.
QUESTION 9 A technician is in the process of upgrading Windows 8 to Windows 10. The technician needs to make sure all of the applications, user profiles, documents, and PST files are preserved. Which of the following methods would the technician MOST likely perform on the computer? A. Unattended installation B. Refresh upgrade C. Clean installation D. In-place upgrade Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following technologies can be used to secure mobile devices and their data? (Select TWO). A. Protective screen B. Remote wipe C. Physical lock D. Locator E. Passcode lock Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 11 A company has just experienced a data breach that affected all mobile devices. Which of the following would BEST secure access to user\\’s mobile devices? (Choose two.) A. Full device encryption B. Remote backup application C. SSO authentication D. Device profiles update E. OS security updates F. Biometric authentication Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 12 An office building lost power, and the generator started up. Users on several floors have reported their machines will not start, even though the generator is running. A technician works to divert power from other floors until all users are able to work. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the technician to recommend? A. Add more redundancy to the power cabling B. Purchase more battery backups for individual users C. Implement desktop virtualization D. Increase the capacity of the backup generator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A technician has been dispatched to resolve a malware problem on a user\\’s workstation. The antivirus program discovered several hundred potential malware items on the workstation and removed them successfully. The technician decides to schedule daily scans on the system, enables System Restore, and creates a restore point. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Run the scan again to ensure all malware has been removed B. Quarantine the infected workstation from the network C. Install all of the latest Windows Updates to patch the system D. Educate the user on safe browsing practices Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following devices is used to implement network security policies for an environment? A. Firewall B. managed switch C. Repeater D. Gateway Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is a common use tor NAT? A. Automatically assigning network addresses B. Hiding the network portion of an IPv4 address C. Connecting multiple devices through a single public IP address D. Resolving alphanumeric names to addresses Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A technician creates a VM in a public cloud to test a new application and then deletes the VM when finished. Which of Does the following BEST describe this type of cloud environment? A. Community B. Elastic C. Hybrid D. On-demand Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A technician is building a CAD workstation for a user who will be saving files remotely. Which of the following components are MOST important to include when configuring the system? (Choose two.) A. Gigabit NIC B. Graphics card C. Liquid cooling unit D. HDD size E. RAM Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is the main purpose of the +5VSB output of a power supply? A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off B. It provides power to the audio and soundboards of the machine C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A developer downloaded and installed a new VM on a hypervisor to test a piece of software following the release of an OS patch. After installing the VM. the developer is unable to download updates from the vendor. Which of the following should the developer check? A. The hypervisor\\’s security configurations B. The organization\\’s security policies C. The guest OS network settings D. The resource requirements Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 A user\\’s smartphone has been slow recently. A technician sees the phone was purchased two months ago, and it is top of the line. About a month ago, a new OS update was installed. To address the issue, the technician runs a hardware diagnostic on the device and it reports no problems. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the performance issue on the device? A. Too many applications are running updates B. The device is currently running in airplane mode C. The internal memory is failing on the device D. The OS update is too resource-intensive for the device Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Joe, a user, reports that his new smart wearable device is not synchronizing to his mobile device. Both devices are powered on, but the mobile device fails to read the data from the wearable. Which of the following will MOST likely fix this issue? A. Pair the devices B. Set the SSID C. Update the smart wearable device firmware D. Enable NFC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A technician is troubleshooting a network that is experiencing inconsistent connections through one of the network drops in the board room. The technician wants to verify the integrity of the network run but needs to identify which cable comes from the board room. However, none of the network connections in the network room are labeled. Which of the following are the BEST tools for the technician to use to identify the correct network run to troubleshoot? (Choose two.) A. Cable stripper B. Cable tester C. Tone generator D. WiFi analyzer E. Multimeter F. Probe Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10 An end-user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected? A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port. B. Use the Fn and function key combination C. Adjust the monitor display settings. D. Enable DisplayPort. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A technician wants the number of virtual machines hosting a web application in the public cloud environment to scale based on real-time traffic on the website. Which of the following should the technician configure? A. Resource pooling B. Rapid elasticity C. Measured service D. High availability Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Ann, a customer, purchased a pedometer and created an account on the manufacturer\\’s website to keep track of her progress. Which of the following technologies will Ann MOST likely use to connect the pedometer to her desktop lo transfer her information to the website? A. Bluetooth B. Infrared C. NFC D. Tethering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A laptop is connected to a conference room projector in extended display mode. The desktop icons appear normal on the laptop but are disproportionate and illegible on the projector screen. Which of the following should the technician check? A. Video resolution B. HDMI connection C. Keystone D. Focus Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS? A. Patching operating system software B. Encrypting data C. Enforcing multi-factor authentication D. Auditing physical data center assets Correct Answer: D Of course, Amazon is responsible for auditing physical data center assets and resources since it is the property of Amazon Inc. Customers have no access to physical sites, hence they are not responsible for maintaining physical data center assets.
QUESTION 2 An Amazon EC2 instance runs only when needed yet must remain active for the duration of the process. What is the most appropriate purchasing option? A. Dedicated Instances B. Spot Instances C. On-Demand Instances D. Reserved Instances Correct Answer: D Reference: https://jayendrapatil.com/aws-ec2-instance-purchasing-option/
QUESTION 3 Which of the following acts as a virtual firewall at the Amazon EC2 instance level to control traffic for one or more instances? A. Access keys B. Virtual private gateways C. Security groups D. Access Control Lists (ACL) Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/ec2-security-groups.html
QUESTION 4 According to the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for configuration management? A. It is solely the responsibility of the customer. B. It is solely the responsibility of AWS. C. It is shared between AWS and the customer. D. It is not part of the AWS shared responsibility model. Correct Answer: C AWS maintains the configuration of its infrastructure devices, but a customer is responsible for configuring their own guest operating systems, databases, and applications. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/sharedresponsibility-model/
QUESTION 5 Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is a responsibility of AWS? A. Enabling server-side encryption for objects stored in S3 B. Applying AWS IAM security policies C. Patching the operating system on an Amazon EC2 instance D. Applying updates to the hypervisor Correct Answer: D Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/shared-responsibility-model/?ref=wellarchitected
QUESTION 6 Which AWS service should be used to monitor Amazon EC2 instances for CPU and network utilization? A. Amazon Inspector B. AWS CloudTtail C. Amazon CloudWatch D. AWS Config Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which of the following are the benefits of running a database on amazon rds compared to an on-premises database? A. RDS backup is managed by AWS B. RDS supports any relational database C. RDs has no database engineer licensing costs. D. RDS database computes capacity can be easily scaled. E. RDS inbound traffic content (for example, security groups) is managed by AWS. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8 Which of the following are benefits of AWS Global Accelerator? (Choose two.) A. Reduced cost to run services on AWS B. Improved availability of applications deployed on AWS C. Higher durability of data stored on AWS D. Decreased latency to reach applications deployed on AWS E. Higher security of data stored on AWS Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/global-accelerator/faqs/
QUESTION 9 AWS CloudFormation is designed to help the user: A. model and provision resources. B. update application code. C. set up data lakes. D. create reports for billing. Correct Answer: A AWS CloudFormation provides a common language for you to model and provision AWS and third-party application resources in your cloud environment. AWS CloudFormation allows you to use programming languages or a simple text file to model and provision, in an automated and secure manner, all the resources needed for your applications across all regions and accounts. This gives you a single source of truth for your AWS and third-party resources. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cloudformation/
QUESTION 10 Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over traditional database management? A. AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables. B. AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system. C. AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand. D. AWS manages the database type. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which AWS service can be used to turn text into life-like speech? A. Amazon Polly B. Amazon Transcribe C. Amazon Rekognition D. Amazon Lex Correct Answer: A Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/polly/#:~:text=Amazon%20Polly%20is%20a%20service,synthesize%20natural%20 sounding%20human%20speech.
QUESTION 12 Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements? A. Amazon EBS B. Amazon S3 C. Amazon EC2 D. Amazon ECS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 What does the AWS Simple Monthly Calculator do? A. Compares on-premises costs to colocation environments B. Estimates monthly billing based on projected usage C. Estimates power consumption at existing data centers D. Estimates CPU utilization Correct Answer: B Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/estimate-your-c/
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QUESTION 1 The IPsec protocol suite is made up of various components covering aspects such as confidentiality, encryption, and integrity. Select the correct statement below regarding the correct configuration options to ensure IPsec confidentiality: A. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, MD5 B. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, AES C. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA D. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, MD5 E. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA Correct Answer: B Answer A is incorrect – as MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity) Answer C is incorrect – as PSK is short for PreShared Keys (key exchange) – and again MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity) Answer D is incorrect – as both MD5 and SHA are hashing protocols (data integrity) Answer E is incorrect – as both PSK and RSA are used for key exchanges This leaves Answer B is the only correct IPsec configuration covering confidentiality. DES, 3DES, and AES are all encryption protocols. Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPsec
QUESTION 2 You have configured a dynamic VPN between your datacenter and your VPC. Your router says the tunnel is up and BGP is active, but for some reason, you are not seeing your routes propagate. What is most likely the issue? A. You need to configure the firewall for BGP. B. Your router does not support BFD. C. You need to obtain a new BGP MD5 key. D. You forgot to set route propagation to “yes” in the routeing table. Correct Answer: D You forgot to set route propagation to “yes” in the routeing table. If the routeing table says BGP is active and the tunnel is up, then you do not have a firewall issue. BFD has nothing to do with route propagation. You do not need a BGP MD5 key for VPN.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following physical layer standards is required for connection to AWS Direct Connect over a standard 1 gigabit or 10 gigabit Ethernet fiber-optic cable? A. Single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-ER for 10 gigabit Ethernet B. Multimode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-ER for 10 gigabit Ethernet C. Single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-LR for 10 gigabit Ethernet D. Multimode fiber, 1000BASE-SX for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-SR for 10 gigabit Ethernet Correct Answer: C Connections to AWS Direct Connect require single-mode fiber, 1000BASE-LX (1310nm) for 1 gigabit Ethernet, or 10GBASE-LR (1310nm) for 10 gigabit Ethernet. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/Welcome.html
QUESTION 4 What are two reasons to have multiple IP addresses or interfaces on one server? (Choose two.) A. You can host multiple SSLs B. Create management networks C. Direct Connect connections D. Teaming multiple NICs for more throughput Correct Answer: AB You cannot bind multiple interfaces for faster speeds on AWS
QUESTION 5 Your company runs an application for the US market in the us-east-1 AWS region. This application uses proprietary TCP and UDP protocols on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances. End users run a real-time, front-end application on their local PCs. This front-end application knows the DNS hostname of the service. You must prepare the system for global expansion. The end users must access the application with the lowest latency. How should you use AWS services to meet these requirements? A. Register the IP addresses of the service hosts as “A” records with latency-based routing policy in Amazon Route 53, and set a Route 53 health check for these hosts. B. Set the Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancer in front of the hosts of the service, and register the ELB name of the main service host as an ALIAS record with a latency-based routing policy in Route 53. C. Set Amazon CloudFront in front of the host of the service, and register the CloudFront name of the main service as an ALIAS record in Route 53. D. Set the Amazon API gateway in front of the service, and register the API gateway name of the main service as an ALIAS record in Route 53. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 What two items are required for all AWS VPNs? (Choose two.) A. Virtual Private Gateway B. ASN C. A hardware router D. Customer Gateway Correct Answer: AD An ASN is only required for dynamic VPNs and hardware routers are not required.
QUESTION 7 A team implements a highly available solution using Amazon AppStream 2.0. The AppStream 2.0 fleet needs to communicate with resources both in an existing VPC and on-premises. The VPC is connected to the on-premises environment using an AWS Direct Connect private virtual interface. What implementation enables on-premises users to connect to AppStream and existing VPC resources? A. Deploy two subnets into the existing VPC. Add a public virtual interface to the Direct Connect connection for users to access the AppStream endpoint B. Deploy two subnets into the existing VPC. Add a private virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection for users to access the AppStream endpoint. C. Deploy a new VPC with two subnets. Create a VPC peering connection between the two VPCs for users to access the AppStream endpoint. D. Deploy one subnet into the existing VPC. Add a private virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection for users to access the AppStream endpoint. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 An organization wants to process sensitive information using the Amazon EMR service. The information is stored in onpremises databases. The output of processing will be encrypted using AWS KMS before it is uploaded to a customer-owned Amazon S3 bucket. The current configuration includes a VPS with public and private subnets, with VPN connectivity to the on-premises network. The security organization does not allow Amazon EC2 instances to run in the public subnet. What is the MOST simple and secure architecture that will achieve the organization\\’s goal? A. Use the existing VPC and configure Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3 endpoint. B. Use the existing VPS and a NAT gateway and configure Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3 endpoint. C. Create a new VPS without an IGW and configure the VPN and Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3 endpoint. D. Create a new VPS without an IGW and configure the VPN and Amazon EMR in a private subnet with an Amazon S3 endpoint and a NAT gateway. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 An organization has three AWS accounts with each containing VPCs in Virginia, Canada, and the Sydney regions. The organization wants to determine whether all available Elastic IP addresses (EIPs) in these accounts are attached to Amazon EC2 instances or in use elastic network interfaces (ENIs) in all of the specified regions for compliance and costoptimization purposes. Which of the following meets the requirements with the LEAST management overhead? A. Use an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule to schedule an AWS Lambda function in each account in all three regions to find the unattached and unused EIPs. B. Use a CloudWatch event bus to schedule Lambda functions in each account in all three regions to find the unattached and unused EIPs. C. Add an AWS managed, EIP-attached AWS Config rule in each region in all three accounts to find unattached and unused EIPs. D. Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets to deploy an AWS Config EIP-attached rule in all accounts and regions to find the unattached and unused EIPs. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Your organization has a newly installed 1-Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection. You order the cross-connect from the Direct Connect location provider to the port on your router in the same facility. To enable the use of your first virtual interface, your router must be configured appropriately. What are the minimum requirements for your router? A. 1-Gbps Multi-Mode Fiber Interface, 802.1Q VLAN, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5. B. 1-Gbps Single-Mode Fiber Interface, 802.1Q VLAN, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5. C. IPsec Parameters, Pre-Shared key, Peer IP Address, BGP Session with MD5 D. BGP Session with MD5, 802.1Q VLAN, Route-Map, Prefix List, IPsec encrypted GRE Tunnel Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 To allow all traffic to access an instance in “Subnet 1” that uses “Security Group 1”, what two options need to be configured? (Choose two.) A. NACL rule allowing 0.0.0.0/0 to access “Subnet 1” B. Security Group rule in “Security Group 1” that allows 0.0.0.0/0 inbound C. Security Group rule in “Security Group 1” that allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0 D. NACL rule allowing 0.0.0.0/0 to access “Security Group 1” Correct Answer: AB You must allow traffic through the NaCl and through the Security Group to access the instance. If there is not an Outbound allows setup in the NaCl, you may need to set that, but an outbound rule for Security Group 1 is not necessary as security groups are stateful.
QUESTION 12 Your company just deployed a WAF to protect its resources. You need to create a baseline before you start blocking traffic. How will you achieve this? A. Set the WAF to Monitor mode. B. Set the WAF to its defaults and let it do its job. C. Setup a Lambda function to monitor Flow Logs and analyze the traffic using Elasticsearch. D. A WAF is default deny and does not allow this. You need to use an IDS instead. Correct Answer: A Monitor mode is the only good choice.
QUESTION 13 What are two routing methods used by Route 53? (Choose two.) A. RIP B. Failover C. Latency D. AS_PATH Correct Answer: BC RIP is used for network routing and AS_PATH is used for BGP path manipulation.
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network? A. Number of hosts connected to the network B. Number of domain servers on the segment C. Maximum speed of the media D. Topology and protocols Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 One purpose of a perimeter network is to: A. Make resources available to the intranet. B. Link campus area networks (CANs). C. Link local area networks (LANs). D. Make resources available to the Internet. Correct Answer: D In computer security, a DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization\\’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization\\’s local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
QUESTION 3 What type of DNS resource record maps an IP address to a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)? A. CNAME B. PTR C. AAAA D. A Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which protocol can be used to encrypt packets on the Internet? A. SNMP B. HTTPS C. TFTP D. HTTP Correct Answer: B HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, makes it more difficult for hackers, the NSA, and others to track users. The protocol makes sure the data isn\\’t being transmitted in plain-text format, which is much easier to eavesdrop on.
QUESTION 5 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. IPSec policies for two machines on a LAN can be modified by using the “IPSec policy snap-in” on Windows 7. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select \\’ No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct. A. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security snap-in B. LAN adapter properties C. Remote Access snap-in D. No change is needed Correct Answer: A Windows Firewall with Advanced Security is an advanced interface for IT professionals to use to configure both Windows Firewall and Internet Protocol security (IPsec) settings for the computers on their networks. Applies To: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Vista Reference: Windows Firewall with Advanced Security and IPsec
QUESTION 6 The maximum throughput of an 802.llg network is: A. 2.4 GHz. B. 54 GHz. C. 2.4 Mbps D. 54 Mbps. Correct Answer: D The 802.11g standard for wireless networking supports a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps.
QUESTION 7 The service that resolves fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses is: A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS). B. Domain Name Service (DNS). C. Internet Service Provider (ISP). D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). Correct Answer: B The DNS translates Internet domain and host names to IP addresses. DNS automatically converts the names we type in our Web browser address bar to the IP addresses of Web servers hosting those sites.
QUESTION 8 You receive a call from a family member who is unable to connect to a game server. You learn that the server\\’s IP is 172.16.2.11. To help, you ping the server and receive the information shown in the following image: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point. Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 The function of a router is to: A. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts. B. Forward traffic to other networks. C. Broadcast routing tables to clients. D. Store tables for name resolution. Correct Answer: B A router is a device that forwards data packets along with networks. A router is connected to at least two networks, commonly two LANs or WANs or a LAN and its ISP\\’s network. Routers are located at gateways, the places where two or more networks connect.
QUESTION 10 Which connectivity option for wide area networks (WANs) is most readily available in most geographic areas? A. Leased line B. ISDN C. T1 D. Dial-up Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to: A. Increase the number of available IP addresses. B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. C. Reduce the number of broadcast domains. D. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain. Correct Answer: D VLANs provide the following advantages: * VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. … * VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. … * Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic. By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end-stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.
QUESTION 12 Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network? A. IPCONFIG B. ROUTE C. PING D. CHECK Correct Answer: C Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
QUESTION 13 Match the IPv4 address type to the corresponding definition. To answer, drag the appropriate definition from the column on the left to the address type on the right. Each definition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 2 You plan to create a dashboard in the Power BI service that will retrieve data from a tabular database in Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The dashboard will be shared between the users in your organization. The Analysis Services database has a DirectQuery connection to the SQL Server database that contains the source data. You need to ensure that the users will see the current data when they view the dashboard. How should you configure the connection to the data source? A. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the Connect live option. B. Deploy an on-premises data gateway (personal mode). Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode. C. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the DirectQuery Data Connectivity mode. D. Deploy an on-premises data gateway. Connect to the data by using the Connect live option. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You plan to embed multiple visualizations on a public website. Your Power BI infrastructure contains the visualizations configured as shown in the following table.
Which two visualizations can you embed into the website? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Visual1 B. Visual2 C. Visual3 D. Visual4 E. Visual5 Correct Answer: BD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-publish-to-web
QUESTION 4 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets. You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power BI service. Solution: From the Power BI service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Import. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files
QUESTION 5 You have the datasets shown in the following graphic.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Note: Each selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a user named User!. User1 is a member of a security group named Contoso PowerB1. User1 has access to a workspace named Contoso Workspace. You need to prevent User1 from exporting data from the visualizations in Contoso Workspace. Solution: From the Power B1 Admin portal, you modify the Tenant settings. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site named Sales. Your company has 1,000 sales users. All sales users can access Sales. You create a report in an app workspace in the Power BI service. You embed the report into a page on the Sales site by using the Power BI web part. You need to ensure that all the sales can view the report from the Sales site. What should you do? A. Configure the app workspace for Premium capacity. B. Enable anonymous access for the Sales site. C. Configure the Portal Site Connection for the Sales site. D. Disable the Embed content in the apps setting from the Tenant settings in Power BI. Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-embed-report-spo
QUESTION 8 You have the visualization shown in the following exhibit.
What should you do? A. Create a calculated column that adds the % symbol to the values. B. From the Modeling tab, change the Data Type to Percentage. C. Edit the query of the data source and change the Data Type to Percentage. D. Create a measure that adds the % symbol to the values, Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 You are importing sales data from a Microsoft Excel file named Sales.xlsx into Power BI Desktop. You need to create a bar chart showing the total sales amount by region. When you create the bar chart, the regions appear as expected, but the sales amount value displays the count of sales amount instead of the sum of the sales amount in each region. You need to modify the query to ensure that the data appears correctly. What should you do? A. Delete the query, import the data into Microsoft SQL Server, and then import the data from SQL Server. B. In Query Editor, add a calculated column that totals the sales amount column. C. Change the Data Type of sales amount column to Numeric. D. Refresh the data model. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 You have a table that contains a column named Phone. The following is a sample of the data in the Phone column. You need to add a new column that contains the data in the format of nnn-nnn-nnnn. How should you complete the Query Editor formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 You have a Power BI model that has the following tables: 1. Product (Product_id, Product_Name) 2. Sales (Order_id, Order_Date, Product_id, Salesperson_id, Sales_Amount) 3.Salesperson (Salesperson_id, Salesperson_name, address) You plan to create the following measure. Measure1 = DISTINCTCOUNT(Sales[ProductID]) You need to create the following relationships: 1. Sales to Product 2. Sales to Salesperson The solution must ensure that you can use Measure1 to display the count of products sold by each salesperson. How should you configure the relationships? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 From Power BI Desktop, you create a query that imports the following table.
What should you do? A. From the Extract menu, click Last Characters. B. From the Extract menu, click Text After Delimiter. C. From the Format menu, click Trim. D. From the Split Column menu, click BY Delimiter. Correct Answer: B References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/mt798301.aspx
QUESTION 13 You have a column named phone_number. The values in the columns are in one of the following formats: 999-999-9999×123 1-999-999-9999×232 +1-999-999-9999x66x666 The values after x in the phone-number column indicate the phone extension. You need to create a custom column in Query Editor that contains only the phone extensions. How should you complete the query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 1 Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic? A. IP and Domain Reputation Center B. File Reputation Center C. IP Slock List Center D. AMP Reputation Center Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network? A. SDN controller and the cloud B. management console and the SDN controller C. management console and the cloud D. SDN controller and the management solution Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 What are the advantages of using LDAP over AD? A. LDAP allows for granular policy control, whereas AD does not. B. LDAP provides for faster authentication C. LDAP can be configured to use primary and secondary servers, whereas AD cannot. D. LDAP does not require ISE to join the AD domain E. The closest LDAP servers are used for Authentication. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which benefit does endpoint security provide to the overall security posture of an organization? A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint. B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain. C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network. D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem? A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied to all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users. B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs. C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true? A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone. C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones. D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html
QUESTION 8 Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.) A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node. B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy. D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time. E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN? A. Cisco Firepower B. Cisco Umbrella C. Cisco Stealthwatch D. NGIPS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 What can be integrated with the Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats? A. Cisco Umbrella B. External Threat Feeds C. Cisco Threat Grid D. Cisco Stealthwatch Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.) A. AES is less secure than 3DES. B. AES is more secure than 3DES. C. AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption. D. AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption. E. AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://gpdb.docs.pivotal.io/43190/admin_guide/topics/ipsec.html
QUESTION 12 Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure? A. PaaS B. XaaS C. IaaS D. SaaS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses? A. SAT B. BAT C. HAT D. RAT Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the script on the device? A. All interfaces except GigabitEthernet2 are reset to their default configurations. B. It replaces the entire configuration for GigabitEthernet2 on the device using RESTCONF. C. It merges the new configuration with the existing configuration on the device using RESTCONF. D. It compares the configuration to the device. If it matches, the device sends back an HTTP 204 status code. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two data formats are human readable? (Choose two.) A. YAML B. Apache Arrow C. gRPC D. binary E. JSON Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 3 Which schema allows device configuration elements to be enclosed within a remote procedure call message when NETCONF is implemented? A. JSON-RPC B. XML C. YAML D. JSON Correct Answer: B Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=jWVsAQAAQBAJandpg=PA21andlpg=PA21anddq=schema+allows+dev ice+configuration+elements+to+be+enclosed+within+a+remote+procedure+call+message+when+NETCONF+is +imple mentedandsource=blandots=mcS25iO8ecandsig=ACfU3U08SQUN0Y7L2-An37GjHRqBzLGFUAandhl=enandsa=Xand ved=2ahUKEwir16OF4dbpAhV7GjQIHc64B5kQ6AEwAHoECAoQAQ#v=onepageandq=schema%20allows%20device% 20configuration%20elements%20to%20be%20enclosed%20within%20a%20remote%20procedure%20call%20message %20when%20NETCONF%20is%20implementedandf=false
QUESTION 4 When using Cisco YDK, which syntax configures the BGP ASN using OpenConfig BGP? A. bgp.config.as_ = 65000 B. bgp.global_.config.as = 65000 C. bgp.global.config.as_ = 65000 D. bgp.global_.config.as_ = 65000 Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKNMS-2032.pdf
QUESTION 5 The Netmiko BaseConnection class contains a method called “send_config_set()”. Which two actions does this method perform on the device? (Choose two.) A. It takes a filename parameter that executes commands contained in that file on the device. B. It requires the user to explicitly send configure terminal and exit commands to the device to enter and exit configuration mode. C. It automatically enters and exits the configuration mode on the device. D. It takes a Python iterable, such as a list of commands, and executes them in order on the device. E. It saves the running configuration to the startup configuration after executing the configuration commands on the device. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6 Which two commands generate a template using Cisco NSO to build a service package? (Choose two.) A. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display template.xml B. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML | save template.xml C. request running-config devices device ce-ios config ios:interface Loopback 0 | display XML D. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 E. show running-config devices device ce-ios config ios: interface Loopback 0 | display XML Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. The ncclient Python script is captured from the ncclient import manager. Which configuration on the Cisco IOS XE device is the script used to enable? A. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 B. router OSPF 100 network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 C. router OSPF 100 router-id 10.1.1.0 network 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.3 area 0 D. router OSPF 100 router-id 1.1.1.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the components of Cisco Network Services Orchestrator from the left onto the correct definitions on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 An engineer must change from using NETCONF for streaming telemetry to telemetry data using the gRPC framework because NETCONF uses XML for the message and payload encoding. Which two messages and payload encodings does gNMI use? (Choose two.) A. gNMI notifications with XML B. protobuf notifications with XML C. protobuf payload D. JSON payload E. gNMI notifications with JSON Correct Answer: CE Reference: https://books.google.com/books?id=4AqXDwAAQBAJandpg=PT131andlpg=PT131anddq=messages+and+p ayload+encodings+does+gNMI +useandsource=blandots=81hpFjIZ_9andsig=ACfU3U1EAEwjRMBnCiHNESBwFLHvZ DHkBwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjirNeZptfpAhXDoFsKHeqMBFsQ6AEwBHoECAsQAQ#v=onepageandq=m essages%20and%20payload%20encodings% 20does%20gNMI%20useandf=false
QUESTION 10 What are two benefits of using Cisco NSO? (Choose two.) A. It abstracts the device adapter and complex device logic from the service logic. B. It uses load balancing services for better traffic distribution. C. It easily integrates into northbound systems and APIs. D. It can replace the CI/CD pipeline tools. E. It automatically discovers all deployed services. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKDCN-2498.pdf
QUESTION 11 You create a simple service package skeleton in Cisco NSO using ncs-make-package? ervice-skeleton template VLAN. Which two steps must be performed to complete the service? (Choose two.) A. Create the VLAN service template in XML. B. Modify the VLAN FastMap algorithm. C. Start the VLAN Python VM. D. Create the VLAN service model in YANG. E. Compile the VLAN NED. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12 An engineer is deploying a Python script to manage network devices through SSH. Which library based on Paramiko is used? A. sshmiko B. paramiko.agent C. libssh2 D. netmiko Correct Answer: D Reference: https://pynet.twb-tech.com/blog/automation/netmiko.html
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Using the provided XML snippet, which Xpath expression prints “Jane”? A. //employee[1]/firstName/value() B. //employee[0]/firstName/value() C. //employee[1]/firstName/text() D. //employee[0]/firstName/text() Correct Answer: D
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