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QUESTION 1
A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter?
A. buffering at endpoints
B. Call Admission Control
C. increase the bandwidth of the links
D. WRED
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option described a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not
B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not
C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based
D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
C. to determine endpoint group membership status
D. named groups of related endpoints
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design?
A. point-to-point GRE tunnels
B. L2TPv3
C. VPWS
D. VPLS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? 352-001 dumps single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs.
A. OpenStack
B. Ansible
C. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
D. Cisco UCS Director
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3)
A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value.
B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels.
C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic.
D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value.
E. Enable LDP throughout the core and configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field.
F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value.
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 7
Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
A. QoS classification and marking boundary
B. fast transport
C. reliability
D. fault isolation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider?
A. RSVP-TE
B. RLFA
C. LFA
D. prefix suppression
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
As the new network designer for a manufacturing company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3)
A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN.
C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs.
D. If all ports in the segment are operational, then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN.
E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all ports forward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity.
F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 10
Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2)
A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol.
B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers.
D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11
Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains remote management access to the router
B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec
C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources
D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
The service provider that you work for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend?
A. CGN
B. NAT64
C. dual-stack CPE
D. 6RD
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality?
A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise.
B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream.
C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification.
D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
A. Layered security approach
B. Place security above functionality
C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Change passwords every 90 days
F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 15
You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? 352-001 dumps (Choose 2)
A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies.
B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops.
C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE.
D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion
E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport dependent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point?
A. detour LSPs
B. 1:1 protection
C. 1:N protection
D. shared-explicit reservation style
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access switches and looped ports?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. BPDU guard
D. loop guard
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which option describes a design benefit of root guard?
A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected.
B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port.
C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops.
D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port.
E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST.
F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network.
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 19
A network is designed to use OSPF to reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?
A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements.
C. Disable BGP synchronization.
D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which two IEEE standards are commonly used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11
B. 802.16
C. 802.15.4
D. 1901.2 NB-PLC
E. 802.22
Correct Answer: AC
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Exam Code: 640-911
Total Questions: 208 Q&As
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Hot Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)
QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”
QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
“Originally, each RIP router transmitted full updates every 30 seconds.”
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? 640-911 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”
QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE
Exam Name: Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-342
Total Questions: 180 Q&As
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Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).
QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device
QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account. 70-342 dumps
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.
QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.
QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online
QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.
QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user.
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.
QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.
QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes. 70-342 dumps
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.
QUESTION 11
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B. On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C. On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D. On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E. On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group for all of the public folders.
F. On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server
Step 5: Start the migration request Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server ) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required)
Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration
QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database available group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 contains three Mailbox servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
DAG1 contains a mailbox database copy named DB1.
You implement a lagged copy of DB1 on Server3. The copy lag time is seven days.
You need to ensure that copies of successfully processed email messages are stored on Server1 and Server2 for seven days.
What should you modify?
A. The Shadow Redundancy settings
B. The Safety Net settings
C. The settings of DAG1
D. The settings of DB1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft Exchange 2013 Safety Net is a new feature in Exchange Server 2013 that prevents data loss by maintaining a queue of successfully delivered messages.
The Exchange 2013 Safety Net is essentially a delivery queue that exists on each Exchange 2013 mailbox server. Each time a message is delivered to a database, a copy of that message is held within the Safety Net. The message copy remains in the Safety Net until its expiration date, which is determined by the administrator.
QUESTION 13
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Unified Messaging (UM) enabled for all mailboxes.
The organization is configured to use an IP gateway to connect to a legacy PBX.
An administrator recently performed some configuration changes.
After the changes, users report that their voice mail is no longer being delivered to their Exchange Server mailbox. The users do not report any other problem.
You need to identify which configuration change causes the issue.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-UMConnectivity
B. Test-CsExUMConnectivity
C. Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
D. Test-CsExUMVoiceMail
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Use the Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet to test the operation of a Mailbox server computer running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service.
Two diagnostic tests are designed to test the operation of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server software (mode 1) and the operation of the whole system that includes the connected telephony components (mode 2).
The Test-UMConnectivity cmdlet can be used to test the operation of a Mailbox server and related connected telephony equipment. When you run this cmdlet and include the UMIPGateway parameter, the Mailbox server tests the full end-toend operation of the Unified Messaging system. This test includes the telephony components connected to the Mailbox server, such as IP gateways, Private Branch eXchanges (PBXs), and cabling. If the UMIPGateway parameter isn’t specified, the Mailbox server tests only the operation of the Unified Messaging components that are installed and configured on the server.
Incorrect:
Not B: Test-CsExUMConnectivity
Verifies that a test user can connect to Exchange Unified Messaging. This cmdlet was introduced in Lync Server 2013.
Not C: Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow
Use the Test-ExchangeUMCallFlow cmdlet to test call flow between Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service, Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service, VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servers and Microsoft Lync Server.
QUESTION 14
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy.
Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. calendar items
B. mail items
C. note items
D. task items
E. contact items
Correct Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
Retention policy tags can be created for these Folders:
* Calendar
This default folder is used to store meetings and appointments.
* Inbox
This default folder is used to store messages delivered to a mailbox.
* Notes
This folder contains notes created by users in Outlook. These notes are also visible in Outlook Web App.
* Tasks
This default folder is used to store tasks.
Etc.
Reference: Retention tags and retention policies
QUESTION 15
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com.
You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Send connector.
B. Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C. Create a new Sharing policy.
D. Modify an organization relationship.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013.
Note:
A hybrid deployment offers organizations the ability to extend the feature-rich experience and administrative control they have with their existing on-premises Microsoft Exchange organization to the cloud. A hybrid deployment provides the seamless look and feel of a single Exchange organization between an on- premises Exchange Server 2013 organization and Exchange Online in Microsoft Office 365. In addition, a hybrid deployment can serve as an intermediate step to moving completely to an Exchange Online organization.
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Exam Code: 70-741
Total Questions: 125 Q&As Download free latest Microsoft 70-741 dumps pdf materials:https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReFlheVBuU0JyeWc
High Quality Microsoft MCSA 70-741 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user.
Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The domain contains three users named User1, User 2 and User 3.
Server 1 has a share named Share1 that has the following configurations.
The Share permissions for Share1 are configured as shown in Share1 Exhibit.
Share1 contains a file named File1.txt. The Advanced Security settings for File1.txt are configured as shown in the File1.txt exhibit.
Select the appropriate statement from below. Select Yes if the state is true , otherwise no.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
You have an internal network that contains multiple subnets.
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription that contains multiple virtual networks.
You need to deploy a hybrid routing solution between the network and the Azure subscription. The solution must ensure that the computers on all of the networks can connect to each other.
You install RAS Gateway and enable BGP routing on the network and in Azure.
Which three actions should you perform next in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com. The domain contains Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. The Hyper-V hosts are configured to use NVGRE for network virtualization.
You have six virtual machines that are connected to an external switch. The virtual machines are configured as shown.
To which virtual machine or virtual machines can VM1 and VM3 connect? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
You have a network policy server (NPS) server named NPS1. One network policy is enabled on NPS1. The policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information in the graphic.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Scenario:
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso,Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server2.
Server2 has the following configured.
*Network address translation (NAT)
*The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to server2
You identify the following requirements:
* Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
* Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
* Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
End of Scenario:
You deploy a computer named Computer8 to subnet4. Computer8 has an IP address of 192.168.10.230 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240
What is the broadcast address for Subnet4? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 than run Windows Server 2016. 70-741 dumps
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2, Server3, and Server4 have the DHCP Server role installed. IPAM manages Server2, Server3, and Server4.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
You are deploying Direct Access to a server named DA1. DA1 will be located behind a firewall and will have a single network adapter. The intermediary network will be IPv4.
You need to configure the firewall to support DirectAccess.
Which firewall rules should you create for each type of traffic. To answer, drag the appropriate ports and protocols to the correct traffic types.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed. The advanced DNS properties for Server1 are shown in the Advanced DNS exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server2 is configured to use Server1 as a DNS server. Server2 has the following IP configuration.
Select the appropriate selection if statement is “Yes” or No.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1. You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
On a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2016, you plan to create two new primary zones named adatum.com and contoso.com. You have the following requirements for the zones:
• Ensure that computers on your network can register records automatically in the adatum.com zone.
• Ensure that records that are stale for two weeks are purged automatically from the contoso.com zone.
What should you configure for each zone? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
\\Server1.adatum.com\namespace1 has a folder target named Folder1. A user named User1 has Full Control share and NTFS permissions to Folder1.
Folder1 contains a file named Filel.doc User1 has only Write NTFS permissions to Filel.doc
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13
You are configuring internal virtual networks to support multitenancy communication between tenant virtual machine networks and remote sites.
You have a tenant named Tenant1.
You need to enable Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for Tenant1.
Which commands should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has two network adaptors named NK1 and NIC2. Server2 has two virtual switches named vSwitch1 and vSwitch2. N1C1 connects to vSwitch1. NIC2 connects to vSwitch2 Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 has two network adapters named vmNIC1 and vmNIC1. VmNIC1 connects to vSwitch1. VmNIC2 connects to vSwitch2.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
What should you run on VM1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
Server1 configured to use a forwarder named server2.contoso.com that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10.
You need to prevent Server1 from using root hints if the forwarder is unavailable.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 16
Server1 provides DNS name resolution to both internal and external clients. Server1 hosts the primary zone for contoso.com.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
* Internal clients must be able to use Server 1 to resolve internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must not be able to use Server1 to resolve Internal-based DNS names.
* External clients must able to use Server1 to resolve names in the contoso.com zone.
Which commands should you run on Server1.? To answer select the appropriate option in answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 17
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machine shown in the following table.
All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2. The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?
A. Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
B. Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
C. On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
D. On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a VPN server. 70-741 dumps
Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from 06:00 to 18:00 everyday of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Server Manager, You modify the Access Policies on Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has three sites located in London, Paris and Berlin.
The London site contains a web server named Web1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure Web1 as an HTTP content server for the hosted cache servers located in the Paris and Berlin sites.
Solution: You install the Deployment Server role service, and then you restart the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) deployment that is used to manage all of the DNS servers on your network. IPAM is configured to use Group Policy provisioning.
You discover that a user adds a new mail exchanger (MX) record to one of the DNS zones.
You want to identify which user added the record.
You open Event Catalog on an IPAM server, and you discover that the most recent event occurred yesterday. You need to ensure that the operational events in the event catalog are never older than one hour.
What should you do?
A. From the properties on the DNS zone, modify the refresh interval.
B. From an IPAM_DNS Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Group Policy refresh interval.
C. From Task Scheduler, modify the Microsoft\Windows\IPAM\Audit task.
D. From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs the Update-IpamServer cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Exam Code: 70-734
Total Questions: 46 Q&As
New Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to change the edition of the image to Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. Thes solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Upgrade Assistant.
B. Perform offline maintenance of the image by using Dism.
C. Run Windows Anytime Upgrade.
D. Deploy the image to a client computer, perform an in-place upgrade, and then capture an image of the computer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Windows 10 on several computers by using images. The computers will contain a Push Button Reset (PBR).
You need to ensure that the computer configuration supports PBR.
Which computer configurations must be available?
A. a recovery image file
B. a DVD drive that contains the installation media
C. a full system backup
D. a recovery partition
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You have a technician computer that has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You have a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
You plan to optimize the Windows PE image by removing unnecessary components from the image.
You need to enable profiling for the image.
Which package should you add to the base Windows PE image before you can enable profiling?
A. winpe-wmi.cab
B. winpe-setup.cab
C. winpe-scripting.cab
D. winpe-mdac.cab
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You have a server that has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) has an image group that contains several Windows images.
You need to ensure that the company name and the support phone number of the OEM are configured when the image is deployed to a computer.
Which file should you modify?
A. Unattend.xml
B. Sysprep.inf
C. Startnet.cmd
D. Winpeshi.ini
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You have several reference computers. The computers are configured to always start from a local hard disk drive. 70-734 dumps You plan to capture the reference computers.
On each reference computer, you connect a USB flash drive (UFD) that contains an installation of Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the reference computers start automatically by using Windows PE from the UFD.
What should you do?
A. From the System Properties, modify the Startup and Recovery settings.
B. From the System Configuration utility, modify the Boot settings.
C. Run bdcedit.exe and modify the boot configuration data (BCD) store.
D. From the BIOS options, modify the startup order.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You plan to install operating systems on 500 client computers by using the sources files located in a network share.
You need to identify which operating system must be installed on the computer that hosts the share. The solution must ensure that 25 computers can correct concurrently to the share.
Which two possible operating systems achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
B. Windows 10 Pro
C. Windows 7 Ultimate
D. Windows 8 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2012 Standard
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 7
You work for an OEM system builder.
You deploy Windows to a client computer that has a 64 GB-Solid State Drive (SSD) by using a configuration set from a USB key.
You need to reduce the size of the Windows installation as much as possible.
Which folder should you remove from the installation?
A. %WINDIR%\Branding
B. %WINDIR%\Addins
C. %WINDIR%\Configsetroot
D. %WINDIR%\Panther
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You need to prepare a hard disk for a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (EUFI)-based computer.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.)
A. Format the Windows partition by using NTFS.
B. Format the Windows partition by using FAT32.
C. Create an EFI partition.
D. Convert the hard disk to a GPT disk.
E. Mark the system partition as active.
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9
You purchase a System Builder pack for Windows 10 Pro and plan to perform an installation by using a Personal Use License.
What should you do first to receive support for the installation?
A. change the license
B. contact a Microsoft Authorized Distributor
C. contact Microsoft
D. contact the OEM system builder
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You need to apply a hotfix to a Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) image by using Dism.
Which parameter should you use?
A. /Set-Edition
B. /Add-Package
C. /Add-Driver
D. /Enable-Feature
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You deploy a Windows image to a reference computer.
You sign in to the reference computer by using the built-in administrator account and you modify the user environment.
You need to deploy the image to several client computers. The image must contain the profile of the built-in administrator account as the default profile.
Which two actions should you perform before you capture the image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run sysprep.exe/generalize /unattend:unattend.xml.
B. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Setup\UserData settings.
C. Run sysprep.exe /generalize /mode:vm.
D. Run sysprep.exe / audit /unattend:unattend.xml.
E. Create an answer file that contains the Microsoft-Windows-Shell_setup settings.
F. Run dism.exe /apply-unattend:unattend.xml.
G. Run dism.exe /image.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
You start a client computer by using Pre-Boot Execution Environment (PXE). You load a default version of Windows Preinstallation Environment (windows PE) that was created by using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK).
You have a file server that contains a shared folder. The folder contains an image of Windows. The folder is shared to the local Users group only.
The computer has a system partition and a Windows partition.
You need to apply a reference installation from a network share.
Which command should you run before applying the image?
A. net.exe
B. mshta.exe
C. drvinst.exe
D. wpeinit.exe
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You have the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) image.
While resting the deployment of the Windows PE image, you discover that the Windows PE installation becomes unresponsive. 70-734 dumps You discover that you are exceeding the memory capacity of the RAM disk.
You need to increase the memory capacity of the RAM disk used by the Windows PE image.
You mount the Windows PE image.
Which command should you run next?
A. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /scratchdir:c:c\images\wpe
B. dism /image:c:\images\wpe /set-scratchspace:256
C. dism /online / set-scratchspace:256
D. dism /cleanup-wim
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
A technician applies an image of Windows to a client computer.
The technician reports that several errors occurred during the Windows Welcome phase of the setup.
You need to view the errors that occurred during Windows Welcome.
Which file should you view?
A. Setupapi.dev.log
B. Cbs_unattend.log
C. Setupapi.offline.log
D. Setupact.log
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You have a Windows image named Image1.wim.
You plan to deploy Image1.win to computers that have built-in video cameras. The driver for the cameras in missing from Image1.wim.
You obtain a driver package from the manufacturer of the cameras. You store the driver package and the driver.inf setup information file C:\Driver.
You mount Image1.wim to C:\Mount.
You need to inject the driver into the image.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options to complete the command.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-165
Total Questions: 187 Q&As
Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)
QUESTION 1
Which two issues explain why a packet is not being routed as desired in a policy-based routing configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a higher metric than the default next hop.
B. The route map is not applied to the egress interface.
C. The next hop that is configured in the route map is not in the global routing table.
D. The route map is not applied to the ingress interface.
E. The next hop that is configured in the route map has a lower metric than the default next hop.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 2
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?
A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
D. forwarded using destination-based routing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When you configure LISP, which two components must be configured at the site edge? (Choose two.)
A. AED
B. ELAN
C. ITR
D. EOBC
E. ETR
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which command should you ran to distribute NTP configuration changes by using Cisco Fabric Services?
A. ntp distribute
B. ntp server 1.2.3.4
C. ntp commit
D. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
You have a suboptimal outbound routing issue in the datacenter. Which two options you can use to resolve the issue? 300-165 dumps (Choose two)
A. On the OTV VDC, configure an OTV MAC route filter that prevent the virtual FHRP MAC address forwarded on the overlay
B. On the OTV edge devices, configure a VACL that prevents FHRP hellos from being forwarded
C. Configure the same FHRP priority on all the OTV edge devices in both sites
D. Remove the VLAN from which FHRP hellos are sent from the extended VLAN range
E. On the OTV edge devices, configure an IP ACL that prevents hosts from reaching the FHRP master router on the other site
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?
A. router ospf
B. global configuration
C. vPC
D. interface
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two Nexus family line cards allow the configuration of features regarding LISP, OTV and MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. B1
B. F3
C. F2
D. F1
E. M2
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
B. manually by using global configuration mode
C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the consequence of configuring peer-gateway on the two vPC peers N7K-1 and N7K-2?
A. Nothing, this is the standard vPC configuration to make the feature work.
B. The downstream device detects only one of the vPC peers as its gateway.
C. The downstream device can use DMAC of N7K-1 on the link to N7K-2, and N7K-2 forwards the packet.
D. This configuration enables the downstream device to use DHCP to obtain its default gateway.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch. Port security is configured to use sticky learning. Where are the secured MAC addresses stored?
A. the running configuration
B. the startup configuration
C. NVRAM
D. RAM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Ethernet interface 1/5 on Cisco Nexus 5548 is connected to Cisco UCS C220 rack server. What is the status of Ethernet 1/5 interface for FCoE functionality?
A. Interface reset on Ethernet 1/5 is preventing the FCoE connection from coming up
B. MTU size of 1500 on Ethernet interface 1/5 needs to be changed for FCoE to come UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 needs a layer 3 daughter card for FCoE to come UP on the Ethernet interface 1/5
D. Ethernet interface 1/5 is operational for FCoE and the status is UP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches are true?
A. It allows partial zone set changes to be distributed without having to activate a zone set.
B. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR.
C. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job.
D. More than one zone set can be active with enhanced zoning.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
What are two prerequisite to running the Smart Call Home feature on a Cisco nexus 6000 series switch? 300-165 dumps (Select two)
A. The switch must have SMTP access to an email server
B. The switch must have public management IP address
C. The switch must have SMTP access to a Cisco.com email server
D. The switch must have an active service contract
E. The switch must be configured to use an email address from the @cisco.com
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Drag the security description on the left to the appropriate security feature on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Which command sequence correctly enables Adapter FEX on Nexus 5000 Series Switches?
A. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
B. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
C. switch(config)# install feature-set adapter-fex
switch(config)# feature-set virtualization
D. switch(config)# install feature-set virtualization
switch(config)# feature-set adapter-fex
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
This multilayer Cisco Nexus switch had been the active virtual gateway for Group 1 before it became temporarily unavailable. What will happen to GLBP Group 1 when this device becomes available again?
A. The currently active router remains active.
B. It depends on the priority value that is configured active on the router.
C. The Cisco Nexus switch becomes the active virtual gateway after 600 seconds.
D. It depends on the weighting values that are configured active on the router.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. STP must run inside the FP network.
B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?
A. priority
B. bandwidth
C. queue-limit
D. random-detect
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
How does an FCoE end node acquire its FCoE MAC address?
A. server-provided MAC address
B. Fibre Channel name server
C. fabric-provided MAC address
D. FIP proxy
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which four options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 5000 and 5500 Series Switch? 300-165 dumps (Choose four.)
A. line rate
B. managed by a parent switch
C. lossless 10 Gigabit Ethernet
D. lossless 100 Gigabit Ethernet
E. low latency
F. extremely low latency
G. hosts a virtual supervisor module
Correct Answer: ACEG
QUESTION 26
Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device?
A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically.
B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks.
C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in.
D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D
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The Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (21-50)
QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. 210-060 dumps A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? 210-060 dumps (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat? 210-060 dumps
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 42
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 46
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 47
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What three characteristics are true regarding the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) inventory, assessment, and reporting toolkit? (Choose three.)
A. Secure inventory via agent software on the target devices
B. Provides comprehensive data analysis
C. Identifies heterogeneous environments consisting of Windows Server, Linux, Apple iOS operating systems
D. Identifies virtualized servers running under VMware
E. Provides detailed assessment results for each migration scenario
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 2
What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS B- Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
From a networking perspective, what is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack- mountable server over a Cisco UCS B Series blade server?
A. A rack-mountable server has more PCIe buses.
B. A blade server has fewer network interfaces.
C. A rack-mountable server can support more vNICs.
D. A blade server uses virtualization to run more applications, which constrains available bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.) 642-998 dumps
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
A customer is designing their new data center using Cisco UCS and they want to use the VM- FEX feature.
Which statement about VM-FEX is true?
A. VM-FEX is a VMware feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
B. VM-FEX is a Cisco UCS feature that allows management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports, which can be handled within Cisco UCS Manager.
C. VM-FEX requires additional licensing, which can be purchased through VMware.
D. VM-FEX is supported only on B200 M3 blades.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which option should be part of network design considerations when proposing a design for Microsoft Exchange 2010 running on Cisco UCS blade servers?
A. high-availability during fabric failover
B. proper placement of server role
C. over committing CPU resources
D. additional virtual machine scalability
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
On which two operating systems is Cisco UCS Manager supported? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows XP
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.0 or higher
C. OS X
D. VMware vSphere 4.0
E. VMware vSphere 5.0
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
Which two customer challenges does Cisco DCNM address? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco DCNM proactively monitors the overall health of the data center network.
B. Cisco DCNM is designed to work with Cisco Fabric Manager.
C. Cisco DCNM generates alerts when it detects an issue that may negatively affect service.
D. Cisco DCNM is designed for enterprise customers only to increase network uptime.
E. Cisco DCNM Essentials Edition is capable of VM-aware monitoring, which reduces administrative overhead.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10
Which three features are included in Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance? 642-998 dumps (Choose three.)
A. packet capture
B. packet decode
C. filter and error scan
D. configure virtual machine
E. configure Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 11
Which feature of Cisco Prime NAM for Cisco Nexus 1010 Virtual Services Appliance provides multifaceted insight into network behavior?
A. packet debug
B. troubleshoot performance
C. traffic analysis
D. API management
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A. transparent operation management through an XML API
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
C. template-based policy management
D. Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
E. disruptive administration model
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
A flow exporter contains network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packet. Which three options must be configured in a flow exporter? (Choose three.)
A. export destination IP address
B. source interface
C. UDP port number
D. TCP port number
E. NAT port number
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 14
What represents the number of bits in an IPv6 address?
A. 32-bit dotted hex
B. 48-bit dotted hex
C. 64-bit dotted hex
D. 128-bit dotted hex
E. 160-bit dotted hex
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which technology has the benefit of significant reduction in cabling at the access layer?
A. FCoE
B. DCBX
C. FIP
D. distributed FCF
E. 802.1Qbb
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways? 642-998 dumps
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which access-layer device is capable of low-latency 40 Gb Ethernet switching?
A. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
B. Cisco Nexus 4000
C. Cisco Nexus 3016
D. Cisco Nexus 2232
E. Cisco Nexus 2248
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data center?
A. PAgP port channel
B. LACP
C. vPC
D. vPC+
E. host vPC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Your customer has a requirement to load balance traffic to rich media servers connected to the data center access layer.
Which Cisco ACE Service Module deployment topology will yield the highest potential bandwidth to subscribers?
A. Transparent
B. One-Arm
C. Routed
D. Inline
E. Asymmetric Server Normalization
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which business requirement typically drives the data center design?
A. data center location
B. support for heterogeneous compute environments
C. a collapsed core and distribution layer
D. choice of a hypervisor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which technology provides the least amount of input to the data center solution requirements? 642-998 dumps
A. cloud compute
B. storage
C. desktop
D. network
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fullyaware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which option is an example of the network services that are provided at the aggregation layer of the data center network?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. ACE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product is the least likely example of an access layer switch within the data center network?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000v
B. Cisco Nexus 5500
C. Cisco Nexus 7000
D. Cisco MDS 9222i
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, 210-065 dumps which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the administrator? 210-065 dumps (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. 210-065 dumps
Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A new Cisco DX650 is not registering in the Cisco Communications Manager running version 9.1.2. The latest device package and firmware was uploaded on all Cisco Communications Manager servers in the cluster. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. A cluster-wide reboot is needed to enable the functionality.
B. You must restart the TFTP server.
C. The firmware in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
D. The software version in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When placing a Multiway call through a Cisco TelePresence Conductor, which IP address on the Conductor should the call be routed to?
A. Rendezvous IP address
B. Ad hoc IP address
C. Scheduled conference IP address
D. Management IP address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is configured in enable mode.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
Which WAN protocol is being used?
A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
You have determined that computer A cannot ping computer B. 200-125 dumps Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The computer A subnet mask is incorrect.
B. The computer B subnet mask is incorrect.
C. The computer B default gateway address is incorrect.
D. The computer A default gateway address is incorrect.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 11
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF
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