Author: admin

[Latest Questions] Latest ACSM 010-111 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Posted by admin on in ACSM

【latest version】The best and most updated ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training materials, ACSM-Certification 010-111 exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. https://www.passitdump.com/010-111.html
【Latest ACSM 100% Pass】All the ACSM 010-111 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 010-111 exam quickly and easily at the first time.

QUESTION 1
What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual?
A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase.
B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease.
C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the function of the tricuspid valve?
A. It acts as a pacemaker.
B. To pump blood through the heart.
C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium.
D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction?
A. Myofibril
B. Sarcomere
C. Myosin
D. Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: B
010-111 exam
QUESTION 4                 010-111 exam
How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise?
A. Exponentially
B. Linearly
C. Curvilinearly
D. Inversely
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Internal intercostals
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline?
A. Greater flexibility of the soleus
B. Lesser force of action from the gluteus maximus
C. Lesser force of action of the knee extensors
D. Lesser flexibility of the plantar flexors
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What two muscles, along with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, make up the rotator cuff?
A. Teres minor and scalenus
B. Teres minor and subscapularis
C. Teres major and scalenus
D. Teres major and subscapularis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle?
A. Absence of striations
B. Presence of branching
C. Requires nervous system stimulation
D. Presence of intercalated disks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart?
A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle.
B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle.
C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle.
D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine?
A. Kyphotic curve
B. Scoliotic curve
C. Lordotic curve
D. Myotic curve
Correct Answer: C

010-111 exam QUESTION 12
Adenosine triphosphate production via “anaerobic” glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____.
A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter.
B. muscle fiber number.
C. connective tissue thickness.
D. hydration state of the muscle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups?
A. Hamstrings
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachioradialis
D. Quadriceps femoris
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining?
A. One intensive day followed by three easy days.
B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days.
C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day.
D. A medium intensive day followed by two easy days.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Adenosine triphosphate production via andquot;anaerobicandquot; glycolysis is associated with the significant formation
of what by-product?
A. Pyruvic Acid
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Citric Acid D. Lactic Acid
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Who should obtain a physician\’s clearance before starting an exercise program?
A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program.
B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise.
C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise.
D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by
concentric action of the same muscle?
A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
B. Plyometrics
C. Dynamic Activity Preparation
D. Progression
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated?
A. Perform less-intensively than normal
B. Do not perform it as often
C. Perform it slower than normal
D. Do not perform at all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
If a food product had 250 kilocalories per serving, a recommended serving size of 5 ounces, and contained 10 servings
per container, how many kilocalories would one consume if s/he ate ?of the container?
A. 625
B. 937
C. 2500 D. 3125
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When reading the label on a new andquot;energyandquot; bar, you notice that the bar is andquot;sweetened with
fructoseandquot;. Based on this label, which of the following conclusions can you make about this product?
A. The bar is sweetened with a disaccharide.
B. Fructose in this bar would give it a high glycemic index.
C. The bar is sweetened with a monosaccharide.
D. Fructose is a type of organic micronutrient.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Cardiac output is a product of heart rate multiplied by ___________.
A. peripheral resistance.
B. blood pressure.
C. blood volume.
D. stroke volume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What action is involved in the concentric phase of the biceps curl?
A. Flexion at the elbow.
B. Extension at the elbow.
C. Pronation of the forearm.
D. Supination of the forearm.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A routine pattern of adhering to and documenting compliance with fitness industry guidelines is often an effective guard
against ________.
A. Breach of contract
B. Malfeasance
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
As the percentage of 1 RM (Repetition Maximum) resistance increases:
A. the amount of rest you should allow between training days should increase.
B. the number of sets performed should increase.
C. the number of repetitions until fatigue decreases.
D. the amount of rest you should allow between sets should decrease.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
An individual participates regularly in his workplace fitness program because he earns a discount on his health
insurance premium for doing so. For this individual, the discount is an example of ________ .
A. Relapse prevention
B. Intrinsic motivation
C. Self-monitoring. D. Extrinsic motivation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases
slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in
intensity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client\’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a
resistance training repetition?
A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate
C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure
D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises?
A. Circuit training
B. Interval training
C. Split routine training
D. Periodization training
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press?
A. Only after the movement ends.
B. Immediately before the movement begins.
C. During the eccentric phase of the movement.
D. During the concentric phase of the movement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery
disease?
A. Advanced age, gender, family history
B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus
C. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia
D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately what
percentage of his/her total energy intake?
A. 30%
B. 55% C. 65%
D. 85%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy
automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements?
A. Lat pulldown
B. Upright Row
C. Tricep extension
D. Shoulder press
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ?
A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty equipment
C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment
D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and
humid afternoon?
A. Consume 2 – 3 salt tablets per hour.
B. Consume 2 – 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 – 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following terms finish the acronym SMART with respect to goal setting: Specific, Measurable, Attainable
__________ and ____________.
A. Realistic, Tried B. Related, Tried
C. Realistic, Time-anchored
D. Related, Time-anchored
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.passitdump.com/010-111.html 【100% Pass Guarantee】

[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Materials Online Free Try

Posted by admin on in Cisco

Best Cisco 700-038 PDF Exam Practice Questions Free Download

Latest Cisco 700-038 pdf exam study materials are written according to the latest real 700-038 IT cert exams. All the practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/700-038.html  100% success and guarantee to pass 700-038 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two )
A. supply chain agility
B. customer experience transformation
C. customer intimacy
D. increase employee productivity
E. collaborative customer experience
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
The Architecture Development Method (ADM) consists of Cisco 700-038 exam several phases. Which two phases are correctly mapped to their activities’? (Choose two.)
A. Phase F: Analyze costbenefits, and risk, then develop a detailed implementation and migration plan.
B. Phase E: Set the scope, constraints, and expectations for The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) project
C. Phase D: Develop architectures at three levels.
D. Phase C: Define the business architecture.
E. Phase B: Create the information systems architecture with applications and data.
Answer: A,C
700-038
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two options are typically included in a Cisco Collaboration Architecture services proposal? (Choose two.)
A. medianet-readiness assessment services
B. compliance strategy consulting services
C. collaboration dashboard services
D. Network security readinessassessment
E. end-user documentation services
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which sequence of Cisco 700-038 dumps steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?
A. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.
B. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.
C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.
D. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two)
A. Logistics and Operations
B. Procurement
C. Sales and Marketing
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement best describes Cisco Smart Business Architecture?
A. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of modeling tools that help customers design their future Cisco Collaboration Architecture model
B. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a set of advanced design guides to help customers and partners design new advanced architectures.
C. Cisco Smart Business Architecture is a solution-level series of step-by-step solution and architecture guides to help quickly and efficiently implement mainstream architectures.
D. Similar to Cisco Validated Designs, Cisco 700-038 vce Smart Business Architecture helps early adaptors to implement new technologies before they become mainstream technologies
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Which two options are examples of partner services that involve addressing the culture of an organization so that collaboration applications are adopted more readily? (Choose two.)
A. analysis of communication process workshops
B. application-readiness assessment
C. internal marketing
D. end-user education and training
E. development of collaboration maps
Answer: C,D
700-038
QUESTION NO: 8
In terms of collaboration, which elements of the typical workday does a properly implemented collaboration architecture affect?
A. processes, culture, and technology
B. making sure that technology fulfills the requirements and expectations
C. processes mapping to the technology and culture
D. behavioral change influencing the right solution
E. customer trust, technology and validated designs
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Cisco 700-038 Collaboration Architecture differentiates from other solutions in terms of a unified workspace that creates a unique user experience. What is the main need of end users that needs to be addressed?
A. to have a centrally managed unified communication solution
B. to build up the architecture on any platform
C. to allow collaboration any time, on any device, and with any content
D. to ensure that telepresence is a mandatory part of any Cisco Collaboration Architecture
E. to establish appropriate security policies around collaboration applications
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
On which area does architectural assessments focus?
A. key performance indicators
B. operational gaps in the functional areas
C. smart business architecture borderless networks, virtualization, and collaboration
D. advanced technology, route, switch, security, and wireless
Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two reasons for virtualizing Cisco Unified Communications applications? (Choose two)
A. lower configuration costs
B. reduce licensing costs
C. reduce carbon footprint
D. lower implementation costs
E. reduce cabling, rack space, and switch port costs
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?
A. lower IT expenses through virtualization
B. high-performance trading
C. customer retention
D. integration of financial trading applications at the desktop
E. reduce time to market for new innovative financial products
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are business requirements in the public sector vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. creating rich opportunities for effective collaboration and learning
B. transforming customer experience
C. increasing employee productivity
D. supporting mobile environment
E. increasing revenue
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
The three-phased approach of preparation, discovery, and proposal is used to deliver true business and
technology alignment. Which option belongs to the discovery phase?
A. services offering and incentives
B. network architecture vision workshop
C. 360 health check
D. architecture roadmap creation and presentation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options should you keep in mind when presenting a solution for the business side to the non-IT
executives? (Choose two)A. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will help achieve their strategicgoals.
B. They need detailed information about the different layers of the future collaboration architecture.
C. They need to understand the applications and services that you have embedded in your architectural
design.
D. They need information on how collaboration architecture will be deployed and serviced.
E. They need to know how the collaboration architecture will provide benefits and supporttheir operational
business.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Many tasks in an organization’s processes require collaboration. Which two options will you need from the
customer to evaluate the relevance and to properly position Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose
two.)
A. employee titles of people who are required to perform designated tasks
B. department titles of people who will perform these tasks
C. available network bandwidth between core processes departments
D. type of information to be shared between involved parties
E. importance and type of interaction between involved parties
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two options are correct statements about the corporate value chain? (Choose two)
A. The corporate value chain helps identify relevant departments but does not provide a link to the
associated executives.
B. The corporate value chain is a straight map to identify stakeholders within the customer’s organization.
C. The corporate value chain shows hierarchies or reporting lines that help identify whom to approach
outside of the IT department.
D. The corporate value chain is an organization chart that helps identify different departments and
business process owners
E. The corporate value chain and core processes help map the relevant departments to the customer’s
organizational chart.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two tools and resources can most efficiently help you to shorten the time to prepare the BOM?
(Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration Architecture Validated Designs
B. Cisco Collaboration Competitive Edge Portal
C. Cisco Collaboration Architecture resources on PEC
D. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing tool
E. Cisco Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
Vertical-oriented support tools are important when positioning Cisco Collaboration Architecture into a
specific industry. Where can you find resources that help you address verticals?
A. Cisco Learning Store
B. Cisco Partner Central, under Sell & Market CiscoC. Cisco’s Steps to Success
D. Cisco Partner Education Connection, under Collaboration Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which three options are assessment types for gap analysis? (Choose three)
A. outsourcing assessments
B. architectural assessments
C. operational assessments
D. business assessments
E. technology assessments
F. virtualization assessments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 21
Which process makes use of the Cisco Installed Base Lifecycle Management (IBLM) initiative and
transformative network approach?
A. a high-level approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
B. a high-level approach in understanding the customer business model
C. a detailed approach in understanding the customer business model
D. a detailed approach in analyzing the existing customer infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry. Which
of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?
A. achieve lower unit costs
B. ensure quality standards to customers
C. increase utilization of manufacturing plants
D. achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace
E. adopt the supply chain to changing markets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
Which option represents an organizational change objection?
A. A migration is impossible without high costs or operational fallouts.
B. We are expanding and acquiring new business. This is the wrong time to switch to collaboration.
C. How can a collaboration architecture help reduce our operating expenses?
D. How can we justify the fact that it is far more expensive than upgrading our existing solution?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which three building blocks of the business model canvas help to achieve efficiency? (Choose three.)
A. revenue streams
B. key partners
C. key resources
D. channelsE. cost structure
F. customer segments
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Retail businesses must act quickly in order to innovate, respond to changing market conditions, enhance
customer service, and increase sales. Which option addresses this requirement?
A. Cisco Lean Retail
B. Cisco Connected Retail
C. Cisco Employee Optimization
D. Cisco Customer Experience Transformation
E. Cisco Secure Store
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option represents a megatrend in the marketplace that has impacted collaboration?
A. dispersed workforces
B. virtualization of the workplace
C. device flexibility
D. expertise on demand
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco Telepresence product series exemplifies simple-to-use immersive collaboration?
A. TX Series
B. MX Series
C. Profile Series
D. EX Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements describe how Cisco Validated Designs help lo build BOM faster”? (Choose two.)
A. Cross-architectural aspects assist with proper design.
B. They help a presales engineer to better understand a customer’s business.
C. They help to verify any BOM that is created.
D. Cisco architects use Cisco Validated Designs to attach a network diagram to a BOM.
E. Proven, tested designs ensure BOM will not change frequently
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which activity belongs to mapping business requirements to Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. developing the high-level and detailed customer designs
B. applying the requirement to the Cisco architecture reference model
C. identifying items from the architecture that would be used, such as switches and routers
D. building the customer design
Correct Answer: A

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/700-038.html Download free Cisco 700-038 pdf exam practice questions and answers online, best Cisco 700-038 pdf exam study materials with high pass rate, pass 700-038 exam test quickly and easily at first try.

Click here to learn more: http://www.certificatedemo.com/cisco-700-038-pdf-exam/

Watch the video to learn more:

[Latest Questions]Latest And Hottest IIA-CIA-PART2 Exam Practice Questions Free Try

Posted by admin on in IIA

Best IIA-CIA-PART2 exam practice materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the IIA-CIA-PART2 practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/iia-cia-part2.html 100% success and guarantee to pass IIA-CIA-PART2 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Monetary-unit sampling is most useful when the internal auditor:
A. Is testing the accounts payable balance.
B. Cannot cumulatively arrange the population items.
C. Expects to find several material errors in the sample.
D. Is concerned with overstatements.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
According to the Standards, which of the following is applicable to the internal audit activity\’s quality assurance and
improvement program?
A. Periodic monitoring of the internal audit activity should be done.
B. All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated.
C. An external assessment should be obtained every three years.
D. The review of assurance services should be the primary focus.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An audit of an organization\’s fulfillment department discovered that problems in the order processing system led to a
significant number of orders being fulfilled multiple times. During the exit conference, the head of the department
informed the auditors that the processing system would be enhanced within six months to correct the problems. Which
course of action should the chief audit executive follow?
A. Adjust the scope of the next scheduled audit to determine that the problems have been resolved.
B. Monitor the status of corrective action and schedule a follow-up engagement when appropriate.
C. Meet with the audit committee to determine the appropriate follow-up action.
D. Assess the status of corrective action in a follow-up engagement in six months.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
While conducting a payroll audit, an internal auditor in a large government organization found inadequate segregation in
the duties assigned to the assistant director of personnel. When the auditor explained the risk of fraud, the assistant
director became upset, terminated the interview, and threatened to sue the organization for defamation of character if
the audit engagement was not curtailed. The auditor discussed the situation with the chief audit executive (CAE). The
CAE should then:
A. Curtail the audit engagement to avoid potential legal action. B. Provide a report to senior management recommending a fraud investigation.
C. Continue the original engagement program as planned but include a comment about the assistant director\’s reaction
in the engagement final communication.
D. Add additional testing to determine whether other indicators of fraud exist.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a reason for an internal auditor to prepare an audit plan before the detailed audit work
begins?
A. The objectives of the audit should be set.
B. The organization\’s management should be informed about the work to be performed.
C. Attention should be devoted toward the key audit areas.
D. The timing of the audit should be set.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Because of a new marketing initiative, an organization has reduced requirements for extending credit to new customers.
As a result, outstanding accounts receivable as a percentage of revenue has increased significantly during the past two
years. Which of the following would be least useful in monitoring this finding?
A. Updates from the manager of accounts receivable regarding collection of outstanding receivables.
B. Updates from the information technology division regarding development of a new accounts receivable system.
C. Updates from the controller regarding the status of corrective actions.
D. Updates from the credit and marketing personnel tasked with reevaluating credit policies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the
weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18
months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion
dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to
take?
A. Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.
B. Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of
service.
C. Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management\’s action plan.
D. Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables. Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an effective way for an internal auditor to improve communications with the client during a
contentious audit?
A. Encourage the client to participate as a partner in the decision-making process to determine the changes that need to
be made.
B. Clearly explain to the client the role of the internal audit activity in the change process.
C. Obtain the support of the board of directors for proposed changes before discussing the changes with operating
management.
D. Speak privately with key client personnel immediately after proposed changes are announced to address their
concerns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is the most important risk in determining the validity of construction delay claims?
A. Contractor claims may be submitted prior to completion of the work.
B. Contractor claims may include costs considered in the fixed-price portion of the work.
C. Contractor claims may include subcontractor estimates of balances due to the subcontractor.
D. Contractor claims may be understated.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
During an interview with a manager in a company\’s claims department, an auditor noted that the manager became
nervous and changed the subject whenever the auditor raised questions about certain types of claims. The manager\’s
answers were consistent with company policies and procedures. When documenting the interview, the auditor should:
A. Document the manager\’s answers, noting the nature of the nonverbal communication.
B. Document the manager\’s answers but not the nonverbal communication because it is subjective and is not
corroborated.
C. Conclude that the nonverbal communication is persuasive and that sufficient evidence exists to begin a fraud
investigation.
D. Disregard the interview entirely because the verbal and nonverbal communications were contradictory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Once an audit report is drafted, the auditor\’s supervisor should review it primarily to ensure that all:
A. Statements are supported and can be authenticated. B. Recommendations for corrective action are clear.
C. Processes within the audited area were reviewed.
D. Sample sizes appear appropriate for any issues found.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser
places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives
the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items
is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to
the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the
cash receipts process?
A. Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.
B. Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.
C. Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.
D. Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
The internal audit activity\’s primary responsibility in a review or examination of the organization by an external
regulatory body is to:
A. Verify that regulatory reviews occur with adequate frequency.
B. Provide follow-up to determine if the regulator\’s findings are appropriately resolved by management.
C. Prepare documentation for the regulator.
D. Document the responses to the regulator\’s findings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which sampling plan requires no additional sampling once the first error is found?
A. Stratified sampling.
B. Attributes sampling.
C. Stop-or-go sampling.
D. Discovery sampling.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15

An internal auditor was assigned to conduct an inventory control and stock room area engagement. During the audit, the
auditor observed that there were some items that have a shelf life expiration date requirement based on a certificate of
conformance received with the product. The certificates of conformance are kept on file in the inventory area office and
the expiration date is verified at the time the item is taken from stock. The auditor reviewed the items in the stock room
and also on the production floor for the expiration dates to see if there was any expired product. All items with a shelf life
requirement were found to be within the expiration date requirement. Which of the following recommendations would be
appropriate?
A. Take no action, because all the items were within the expiration date requirement, and no corrective action is
needed.
B. Permit production staff the access to files where the certificates of conformity are kept, so they can choose the items
with the closest expiration date.
C. Determine the cost of inventory for the items that have a shelf life and apply a new policy regarding inventory levels
to be maintained (i.e., minimums, maximums, reorder points etc.).
D. Add to the product label a andquot;use by dateandquot; line, enter the expiration at the time of receipt, and perform
periodic inventory checks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An audit engagement objective at a manufacturer is to determine the quality of raw materials purchased. Which of the
following actions would best enable an internal auditor to satisfy this objective?
A. Analyze the provision for sales allowances.
B. Analyze the percentage of scrap incurred during production.
C. Research the rationale for customer returns.
D. Evaluate the volume and characteristics of products rejected during processing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
The newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a large multinational corporation, with seasoned internal audit
departments located around the world, is reviewing responsibilities for engagement reports. According to IIA guidance,
which of the following statements is true?
A. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign every engagement report.
B. The CAE is required to review, approve, and sign all regulatory compliance engagement reports only
C. The CAE may delegate responsibility for reviewing, approving and signing engagement reports, but should review
the reports after they are issued.
D. The internal audit charter must identify authorized signers of engagement reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be included in an internal audit department\’s quality assurance and improvementprogram?
1.
Ongoing internal assessments of the performance of the internal audit department.
2.
Periodic internal reviews through self-assessments.
3.
Assessments conducted by a qualified external reviewer at least once every five years.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
The internal audit activity of an investment company received a request to provide assurance on the risk management
process. Preliminary discussion with senior management revealed that separate functions within the organization
perform some form of risk management activities. Which of the following is the most effective tool for ensuring that risk
management activities are coordinated among these functions?
A. Delphi technique.
B. Assurance map.
C. Facilitated workshop.
D. Analytical reviews.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An organization has a large number of vendors supplying goods to its various branches across the region. The code of
conduct statements signed by the employees specify that the employees or their families will not sell goods to the
organization. However, during the internal audit of a branch, the internal auditor suspected that some of the employees
may be supplying goods to the organization contrary to the code of conduct. The chief audit executive has requested
that a thorough review be completed to identify the potential employee vendors. Of the following tests, it would be least
useful to compare [List A] with [List B].
[List A] [List B]
A. Vendor bank account numbers Employee bank account numbers
B. Dates of payments to vendors Dates of salary payments to employees
C. Addresses of vendors from the vendor database Addresses of employees from the employee database D. Vendor names Employee names
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is most appropriate when conducting an interview during the course of a fraud investigation?
A. Schedule the interview well in advance.
B. Explain the detailed purpose to the interviewee.
C. Assume that the interviewee is guilty.
D. Have a witness present during the interview.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
In addition to the internal auditor, which of the following parties should be present at an exit or closing conference?
1.
Audit committee members.
2.
The external auditor.
3.
The management responsible for the areas covered by the engagement.
4.
The chief executive officer.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a preventive control for fraud?
A. Determining if the number of manually prepared disbursement checks is high.
B. Reconciling the purchase orders with the requisitions.
C. Verifying that new vendors appear on the vendor pre-approved list. D. Conducting an inventory count of the warehouse.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The most effective procedure to verify compliance with a requirement that materials be purchased from the lowest-
priced source is to compare:
A. Prices paid for selected materials with prices listed on related purchase orders.
B. Bids obtained for selected purchases with related purchase orders.
C. Vendors\’ current prices with prices listed on related purchase orders.
D. Approved vendor lists with bids obtained for selected purchases.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
An organization\’s policies allow buyers to authorize expenditures up to $50,000 without any other approval. Which of
the following audit procedures would be most effective in determining if fraud in the form of payments to fictitious
companies has occurred?
A. Use generalized audit software to list all purchases over $50,000 to determine whether they were properly approved.
B. Develop a snapshot technique to trace all transactions by suspected buyers.
C. Use generalized audit software to take a random sample of all expenditures under $50,000 to determine whether
they were properly approved.
D. Use generalized audit software to select a sample of paid invoices to new vendors and examine evidence that shows
that services or goods were received.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
The scope of a business process review primarily involves:
A. Appraising the environment and comparing against established criteria.
B. Assessing the organization\’s system of internal controls.
C. Reviewing routine financial information and assessing the appropriateness of various accounting treatments.
D. Evaluating organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of transaction flows.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
As part of an operational audit, an auditor compared records of current inventory with usage during the prior two-year
period and determined that the spare parts
inventory was excessive. What step should the auditor perform first?
A. Determine the effects of a stock-out on the organization\’s profitability.
B. Determine whether a clear policy exists for setting inventory limits.
C. Determine who approved the purchase orders for the spare parts.
D. Determine whether purchases were properly recorded.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Why should internal auditors develop a strong relationship with the external auditors?
A. External auditors offer an additional layer of approval to internal auditors\’ reports.
B. External auditors can help improve the effectiveness of internal control sampling techniques.
C. External auditors can offer an independent and knowledgeable viewpoint.
D. External auditors can share information gained from work with similar clients.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, the internal audit activity\’s decision to defer follow-up
of recommendations and management\’s corrective actions until the next scheduled engagement for the area is justified
when:
A. The reported findings or recommendations are significant enough to require immediate action by management.
B. The action taken by management to address the recommendation is sufficient when weighed against the importance
of the finding.
C. Management has adequately understood and appropriately accepted the risk of not taking action to implement the
recommendation.
D. The significance of the finding or recommendation will allow auditors to perform monitoring by receiving periodic
updates from management on corrective actions taken.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department
of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and
financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in
decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security
at that level. C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the
system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D

Click here to learn more: https://www.passitdump.com/iia-cia-part2.html Latest IIA IIA-CIA-PART2 exam test update study materials. Download IIA-CIA-PART2 free demo to try, pass IIA IIA-CIA-PART2 exam test easily at first try.

[Latest Questions] Latest Cisco 600-455 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Posted by admin on in Cisco

Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist designing Cisco unified contact center Enterprise training resources which are the best for clearing designing Cisco 600-455 exam unified contact center enterprise https://www.passitdump.com/600-455.html Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco unified contact center enterprise specialist.

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Mobile Agents are true? (Choose two.)
A. An additional voice gateway is required for Silent Monitoring.
B. They extend and connect.
C. They perform call control features (example: Hold/Conference/Transfer) only from the agent desktop.
D. They are limited only to PSTN phones and mobile phone; IP phones are not supported.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, which two Dialing Modes
apply to Transfer to IVR based campaigns? (Choose two.)
A. Preview dialing mode
B. Direct Preview dialing mode
C. Progressive dialing mode
D. Predictive dialing mode
E. Callback mode
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Outbound Option with SIP Dialer, in which order does the
Campaign Manager process perform record queries to send them to Dialer for dialing?
A. pending contacts, callbacks, retries
B. callbacks, retries, pending contacts
C. retries, callbacks, pending contacts
D. pending contacts, pending callbacks, pending retries
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which two certificates do the Cisco Finesse primary and secondary
servers accept when HTTPS protocol is used to access the administration console or agent desktop?
(Choose two.)
A. digital certificate
B. certificate authority certificate
C. domain validation certificate
D. self-signed certificate
E. root certificate
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How does the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution encrypt the logger database?
A. AES
B. SHA
C. MD5
D. TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, which option is needed from the primary and secondary servers for
certificate authority to generate a root, intermediate, and application certificate for Cisco Finesse?
A. fully qualified domain name of the servers
B. physical MAC address of the NIC card from the Cisco Finesse servers
C. Certificate Signing Request
D. IP address of server
E. system ID of the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When using microapps, which core components are required for calls that originate from Cisco Unified
Communications Manager to Cisco Unified CVP using Comprehensive mode?
A. CUCM: CTI Route Port, SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU, CUBE, VXML Gateway
B. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 2 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
C. CUCM: CTI Route Point and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
D. CUCM: CTI Route Port and SIP Trunk, ICM: CVP Type 10 VRU and Network VRU labels, VXML
Gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
For the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise Outbound option, which Cisco Unified Communications Manager
feature can be used to disable ringback during transfer to agent for a scenario that involves SIP trunks?
A. replaces header script
B. normalization script
C. association script
D. transformation script
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which type of MTP is supported with Cisco Unified Mobile Agent?
A. MTP Pass-Through
B. MTP No Pass-Through
C. MTP Pass-Around
D. MTP No Pass-Around
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 600-455 exam question

In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), when agents login into the desktop as a Mobile Agent, which number is used in
the highlighted Extension field?
A. the local CTI port dialed number
B. the remote CTI port dialed number
C. agent PSTN number (accessible from CUCM/GW)
D. agent ID
E. agent reservation script dialed number
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about combining IP telephony and Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Extensions on the same IP phone are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified CCE supports only one agent ACD line on the IP phone.
B. The ACD line on the IP phone may have voicemail or call forwarding defined.
C. In a typical call center, the ACD line is the first line on the phone to make it easier for the agent to
forward inbound ACD calls.
D. The agent state changes based on the activity of the ACD line.
E. If the agent picks up the phone to place a call, the agent is put into ready mode.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution with clustering over the WAN, which statement
about the Cisco Unified Communications Manager peripheral gateway duplex pair is true?
A. Each side of the peripheral gateway pair (side A and side B) must be configured to point to a local and
a remote CTI Manager across the WAN from the PG location.
B. The peripheral gateway private network may be shared with any other private connections– peripheralgateways or call routers/loggers.
C. The peripheral gateway may use the highly available WAN connection between the sites (visible
network) for all traffic–visible and private.
D. The peripheral gateways must be co-located at one side or the other of the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications
Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution?
A. Add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration.
B. Add a second TFTP server to the cluster.
C. Add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Group defined in device pool of the Cisco IP Phone.
D. Use an SRST reference in the device pool.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
To maintain end-to-end reporting context, when an agent transfers a call to another ICM Skill Group, to
which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration object should the call be transferred?
A. route pattern
B. agent IP phone
C. CTI route point
D. translation pattern
E. translation route
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution is designed with geographic redundancy for the central
controllers (with separate call routers and loggers).
If Call Router Side A has device majority and its Ethernet private network NIC fails, which two events
occur? (Choose two.)
A. The Call Router Side B stays active, while the Call Router Side A goes idle.
B. The Call Router Side A stays active, while Call Router Side B goes idle.
C. There is no ability to make ICM configuration changes.
D. Both sides go out of service for small period of time, Call Router Side A goes active, and Call Router
Side B goes idle.
E. The system operates as it did prior to failure.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which failure scenario in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution stops all processing and
routing of contact center calls?
A. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
B. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
C. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side A fails.
D. ICM Call Router Side B fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
E. ICM Call Router Side A fails at the same time that ICM Call Router Side B fails.F. ICM Logger Side A fails at the same time that ICM Logger Side B fails.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering over the WAN
deployment model are true? (Choose two.)
A. With Cisco Unified Computing System C-Series Servers, you must deploy dual SAN on each data
center.
B. The visible network that supports the communication between Cisco Unified Communications Manager
subscriber nodes must be highly available and designed with no single point of failure.
C. Agents at remote locations must be registered to only one data center for their Cisco Unified IP Phone
connections if they are using Cisco Finesse.
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise IVR Peripheral Gateway cannot be split between the data
center locations to maintain a local JTAPI connection for call control.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Peripheral Gateways that are split between the two data
centers can share the same private network connection as the central controller (router and logger)
components.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which three statements about QoS in a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management solution are true?
(Choose three.)
A. In a Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management network, if the traffic is marked in the ICM, QoS trust
needs to be enabled on access-layer routers and switches.
B. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 90 percent of total available
bandwidth.
C. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 75 percent of total available
bandwidth.
D. The high priority queue for the private network should be granted 65 percent of total available
bandwidth.
E. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is no longer necessary.
F. Traffic marking in Cisco Unified ICM means that configuring separate private high and private medium/
low sets of IP addresses is still necessary.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 19
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified
Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three system responses are valid if the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (centralized
deployment with remote branches) and the remote branch lose the public network connection to both of
the data centers? (Choose three.)
A. The local voice gateway detects the failure of the communications path. The voice gateway goes into
SRST mode to provide local dial-tone functionality.B. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then executes local bootstrap TCL script, answers the call, and forwards it
to the hunt group.
C. The active call that arrived at the local PSTN connection and was answered by agent at that site
remains active, however, the agent peripheral gateway loses access to the call and creates a TCD
record.
D. The Cisco Finesse server detects the loss of connectivity to the agent desktop and automatically signs
the agent out of the system.
E. With Cisco Unified CVP, the voice gateway detects the loss of connection to the Cisco Unified CVP call
server. The voice gateway then connects to the communication manager cluster to provide local dial-
tone functionality.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 21
Which three benefits does a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise centralized deployment with small
agents branch provide? (Choose three.)
A. It requires only a small data switch and router, IP phones, and agent desktops at remote sites for a few
agents.
B. It requires only limited system and network management skills at remote sites.
C. Small remote branches require PSTN and SIP trunks, in addition to the ones needed for local POTS
lines for emergency services (911) in the event of a WAN link loss.
D. PSTN trunks for incoming traffic connect to data centers for efficiency.
E. It does not use VoIP WAN bandwidth when an agent is answering the call.
F. Calls extend over the WAN only while calls are in queue.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Which three WAN/MAN configurations are valid in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise clustering
over the WAN deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. A highly available visible network WAN/MAN/DWDM and a dedicated private network WAN.
B. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks with a 2 second convergence
time.
C. A highly available MPLS WAN shared by the visible and private networks where the private network is
pinned to a single path and the visible network aligned to an alternate path failing to the private network
path as redundant link with QoS and bandwidth provisioning.
D. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with a sub-500
ms convergence time.
E. All traffic is converged on a single MPLS network by using appropriate QoS markings and settings to
ensure latency and bandwidth requirements.
F. A highly available DWDM/CWDM network shared by the visible and private networks with 1500 ms
convergence time.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23
Which two options are required for the private link in the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution?
(Choose two.)
A. path diversity
B. Layer 3 quality of service prioritization and queuing
C. max of 1500 ms round trip time latency tolerance
D. variable layer subnet masking
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
In a Cisco Finesse 10.0(x) deployment, primary and secondary nodes can be installed on
separatedomains.
Which two requirements must be met for the pair to work properly? (Choose two.)
A. Each Cisco Finesse server should be able to perform DNS lookup of the other server using fully
qualified domain name.
B. Primary and secondary Cisco Finesse servers should only communicate with IP address.
C. All Cisco Finesse clients should be able to perform DNS lookups of the Cisco Finesse servers using
the FQDN.
D. All Cisco Finesse clients should connect to the server with IP address.
E. All Cisco Finesse clients should be local to the Cisco Finesse servers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 25
Which option describes the impact of co-loading the Cisco Unified Outbound SIP Dialer on the same
servers as the agent peripheral gateway in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer does not reduce agent capacity on the peripheral gateway server.
B. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of four–each outbound port is
equivalent to four agents on the peripheral gateway.
C. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 1.33–each outbound port is
equivalent to 1.33 agents on the peripheral gateway.
D. Cisco Unified Outbound Dialer reduces agent capacity by a factor of 15–each outbound port is
equivalent to 15 agents on the peripheral gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A customer has a remote site with 100 agents, and the remote site only has SRST for E.911. 50% of the
supervisors are located at HQ where the data center is. The agents to supervisor ratio is 10%. The
customer requires that supervisors from any remote site can record and silent monitor active calls. With
BW design consideration, how many minimum RTP streams are needed between the data center and
agent remote sites?
A. 300 RTP streams
B. 150 RTP streams
C. 110 RTP streams
D. 120 RTP streams
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which four items are factors of bandwidth requirements for the visible network connection between the
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent Peripheral Gateway and the call router? (Choose four.)
A. busy hour call attempts
B. number of skill groups per agent
C. number of agents
D. number of call types
E. percent of traffic with Courtesy Callback
F. number of call and ECC variables
G. number of concurrent real-time reports
H. percent of traffic requires Agent Greeting
I. percent of traffic requires Whisper AnnouncementsCorrect Answer: ABCF

QUESTION 28
Which VMware feature is supported for use with Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A. VMware vMotion
B. VMware distributed vSwitch
C. VMware consolidated backup
D. VMware snapshots
E. vDisk thick provisioning
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which two statements about a Contact Center Enterprise solution in virtualized environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A. UCS B/C series NIC teaming is supported.
B. 10/100 NIC speeds are supported.
C. Gigabit Ethernet Auto Negotiation is optional for NIC and switch.
D. 802.1Q uplinks to VMware hosts must not be configured for host/edge spanning-tree forwarding.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 30
In Cisco Finesse 10.0(x), which VM network adapter type removes the requirement to disable the LRO
feature on the VM host?
A. Vlance network adapter type
B. Flexible VM network adapter type
C. E1000 network adapter type
D. VMXNET network adapter type
E. VMXNET3 network adapter type
Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-ucced.html

Related: http://www.geturnet.com/latest-cisco-200-105-dumps/

[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB2-708 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

The Microsoft MB2-708 dumps exam practice questions and answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of the brain dumps. https://www.passitdump.com/mb2-708.html We have the most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has a full deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You install Windows Server 2012 on a new server.
You need to ensure that you can configure the Dynamics CRM settings on Server1 from Server2 by using Windows
PowerShell.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Deployment Tools server role
B. The Developer Toolkit for Microsoft Dynamics CRM
C. The OrgDBOrgSettings tool
D. The Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are asked to identify the benefits of performing an in-place upgrade instead of a migration that uses a new instance
of Microsoft SQL Server. Which two benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Easiest to recover if a database failure occurs
B. Minimizes hardware costs
C. Easiest to perform
D. Minimizes downtime
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your company signs an agreement with a hosting company that will host Dynamics CRM for your company.
The hosting company implements a new deployment of Dynamics CRM for your company. You need to import one of
the existing organizations to the new
deployment of Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.
What should you do first?
A. From Deployment Manager, modify the existing organization.
B. From Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, create a backup of the organization database.
C. From File Explorer, copy the .mdb files. D. From the Dynamics CRM web application, export the site map.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains a server named Server1.
Server1 has the following components installed:
All of the Dynamics CRM Front End Server roles
All of the Dynamics CRM Back End Server roles
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
Microsoft SQL Server
From Deployment Manager, you disable Server1.
Which two components will stop? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer service
B. Sandbox Processing Service
C. The SQL Server service
D. SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
E. Email Integration Service
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are planning the deployment of Microsoft SQL Server for a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015. The planned
deployment will contain a standby copy of the SQL databases in a remote data center. You need to recommend a
solution for keeping the standby databases up-to-date.
What should you recommend?
A. Database mirroring
B. AlwaysOn Availability Groups
C. File Replication Service (FRS)
D. Transaction log shipping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. The server runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to change the user account used to start the Dynamics CRM services in the least amount of time possible.What should you use?
A. Deployment Manager
B. Add or remove programs
C. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
D. Server Manager
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You complete the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
You need to ensure to that users on the Internet can access the deployment.
What should you create?
A. A Kerberos delegation in Active Directory
B. A service connection point (SCP) in Active Directory
C. A zone delegation in the internal DNS zone
D. A record in the external DNS zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015.
You import a new organization to the deployment.
Which statement accurately describes what occurs when you import the new organization?
A. The tables from the new organization are merged into the existing organization.
B. The existing organization is removed.
C. The existing databases are removed.
D. You are prompted to upgrade to Dynamics CRM Server 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015. You configure the following settings:
Server Profile
Incoming Email
Outgoing EmailUsers will not use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to identify a method to implement synchronization for appointments, contacts, and tasks.
What should you use?
A. Forward Mailbox
B. Smart Matching
C. Server-Side Synchronization
D. Email Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a server that has Dynamics CRM 2013 and the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions installed.
You plan to upgrade to Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to ensure that the server uses the Dynamics CRM 2015 version of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting
Extensions.
What should you do?
A. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics
CRM 2015, and then install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions.
B. Uninstall the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, install the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015
Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
C. Upgrade from Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015, and then perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions.
D. Perform an in-place upgrade of the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Reporting Extensions, and then upgrade from
Dynamics CRM 2013 to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A user named Admin1 recently installed Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to instruct Admin1 to prepare the installation to meet the following requirements:
Another user named Admin2 must be able to create an organization.
Five users must be able to manage Dynamics CRM 2015 data.
Only the required client access licenses (CALs) must be purchased.
Which three tasks should you instruct Admin1 to do? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.A. From Deployment Manager, add Admin2.
B. Purchase five CALs.
C. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add Admin2.
D. From Deployment Manager, add the five users.
E. Purchase seven CALs.
F. From the Dynamics CRM 2015 web application, add the five users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
You are evaluating the deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
All users will access the deployment from the internal network only by using several different client types.
You need to identify which client types require an Internet-facing deployment.
Which three client types should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Dynamics CRM for Android
B. Dynamics CRM for iPad
C. Dynamics CRM web application
D. Dynamics CRM for Windows Phone 8
E. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 to five internal users on the network and to five external users.
Only the internal users will create workflows. All of the users will use Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
You need to recommend which licenses must be purchased for the planned deployment. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you recommend?
A. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and one External
Connector (EC) license
B. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five Professional CALs
C. One license for Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server 2015, five Basic client access licenses (CALs), and five
Professional CALs
D. One license for Dynamics CRM Server 2015, five Professional client access licenses (CALs), and one ExternalConnector (EC) license
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
is installed on a different server.
You implement an Internet-facing deployment by using the default configurations and ports. You have an organization
named CRM in a domain named
contoso.com.
You need to identify which URL users must use to access the Dynamics CRM deployment from the Internet.
Which URL should you identify?
A. http://crm.contoso.com/default.aspx
B. https://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
C. http://crm.contoso.com:443
D. https://contoso.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx
E. http://crm.contoso.com/main.aspx
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message
header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook. What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which statement correctly describes the backup and restore capabilities of Microsoft System Center 2012 for Dynamics
CRM 2015?
A. System Center 2012 can use the VSS writer to back up the Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 databases used by
Dynamics CRM 2015.
B. System Center 2012 can provide automatic failover of the Dynamics CRM 2015 databases.
C. System Center 2012 can be used to perform granular restores of individual objects in Dynamics CRM 2015.
D. System Center 2012 can be used to back up the databases used by Dynamics CRM 2015 while users are connected
to the organization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains multiple organizations.
You need to limit the number of systems jobs that can be queued for a single organization.
What should you do?
A. From the web application, modify the system settings.
B. From Deployment Manager, modify the organization settings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-CRMAdvancedSettings cmdlet
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Edit-CRMOrganization cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have a network that contains a single IP subnet.
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server cluster that contains two SQL Server servers. You launch the setup program for
Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to configure Dynamics CRM 2015 to use the SQL Server cluster.
What should you enter on the Select SQL Server page? A. The management IP address of the SQL Server cluster
B. The IP address of one of the SQL Server servers
C. The virtual server name of the SQL Server cluster
D. The name of one of the SQL Server servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You plan to install Dynamics CRM 2015 on a server named Server1.
You need to identify which technologies will be installed automatically by the Dynamics CRM 2015 setup program.
Which two technologies should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
B. The Dynamics CRM Email Router
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
D. Microsoft .NET Framework
E. The Web Server (IIS) server role
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers. You need to identify the location of offline
Dynamics CRM data on the client computers.
Which location should you identify?
A. An Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) file
B. A Storage Space in Windows Server
C. A Microsoft SQL Server Express database
D. An Outlook Offline Data (.ost) file
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Your network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.

passitdump mb2-708 exam question

You need to create custom reports by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension. On which
computer should you install the extensions?
A. Computer1
B. Computer2
C. Computer3
D. Computer4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization named ORG1.
You need to create a disaster recovery plan for the deployment.
Which two databases should you include in the disaster recovery plan? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution?
A. msdb
B. mscem_config
C. master
D. org1_mscrm
E. tempdb
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
You plan to create a new Dynamics CRM 2015 organization by using the New- CRMOrganization Windows PowerShell
cmdlet.
You need to identify the required PowerShell parameters for the new organization.
Which three parameters should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. -SRSUrt
B. -BaseCurrencyCode C. -DisplayName
D. -SQLServerName
E. -BaseLanguageCode
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 25
You are planning a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that will contain two Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Two hundred users will access the deployment from the internal network. Fifty users will access the deployment from
client sites. All of the users will use
Dynamics CRM client applications.
You need to recommend the minimum number of licenses that must be purchased for the planned deployment.
How many licenses should you recommend?
A. Two server licenses and 250 client access licenses (CALs)
B. One server license and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
C. Two server licenses and 200 client access licenses (CALs)
D. Two server licenses, 200 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
E. Two server licenses, 250 client access licenses (CALs), and one External Connector (EC) license
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
You are deploying Dynamics CRM 2015.
You plan to use smart matching and tracking tokens.
What information in email messages do tracking tokens rely on to identify items that should be tracked?
A. An alphanumeric string generated at the end of the subject line
B. An alphanumeric string generated at the beginning of the subject line
C. The email address of the sender and the recipient
D. A token that contains an alphanumeric string that is located in the email header
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
You deploy Dynamics CRM 2015.
You need to identify the maximum number of addresses that can be synchronized from a Microsoft Outlook contact to a
contact record in Dynamics CRM. How many should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
You need to identify which type of file is used to store the definition for Dynamics CRM reports. Which file type should
you identify?
A. RDL
B. VSPX
C. SQL
D. RDLX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You need to configure email synchronization for a Dynamics CRM 2015 user. Which record should you modify?
A. Contact
B. User
C. Account
D. Mailbox
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
You plan to install a Dynamics CRM 2015 Back End Server.
You need to identify which three server roles are installed on a Back End Server.
Which three roles should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Asynchronous Processing Service
B. Discovery Web Service
C. Organization Web Service
D. Email Integration Service E. Sandbox Processing Service
F. Microsoft Dynamics CRM VSS Writer
Correct Answer: CDE

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/mb2-708.html Best Microsoft MB2-708 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass MB2-708 exam test easily at first attempt.

[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft 98-364 Dumps Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

Best Microsoft 98-364 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the Microsoft 98-364 dumps exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/98-364.html 100% success and guarantee to pass Microsoft 98-364 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
The terms “bitmap,” “b-tree,” and “hash” refer to which type of database structure?
A. View
B. Function
C. Index
D. Stored procedure
E. Trigger
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
One reason to add an index is to:
A. Decrease storage space.
B. Increase database security.
C. Improve performance of select statements.
D. Improve performance of insert statements.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a table that contains the following data.

passitdump 98-364 exam question

This process is referred to as:
A. defragmentation
B. normalization
C. fragmentation
D. denormalization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a table that contains the following data.

passitdump 98-364 exam question

Which database term is used to describe the relationship between ProductID and ProductCategory?
A. Cohort
B. Relationally dependent
C. Deterministic
D. Functionally dependent
E. Compositional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?
A. foreiqn
B. primary
C. local
D. superkey
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement creates a composite key?

passitdump 98-364 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
At 3:00 P.M. (1500 hours), you create a backup of your database. At 4:00 P.M. (1600 hours), you create a table named Customer and import data into the table. At 5:00 P.M. (1700 hours), your server fails. You run a script to apply only the
3:00 P.M. backup to your database. What is the result of the script?
A. The Customer table no longer exists.B. The Customer table is unaffected.
C. The Customer table exists but has no data.
D. The script fails.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
In which situation do you need to perform a restore on a database?
A. when data becomes corrupted in the database
B. when you need to roll back a transaction
C. when you encounter an error in your application
D. when data needs to be deleted from the database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the data in a table?
A. ALLOW SELECT
B. LET READ
C. PERMIT READ
D. GRANT SELECT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You need to enable a new employee to authenticate to your database.
Which command should you use?
A. ALLOW USER
B. CREATE USER
C. ADD USER
D. INSERT USER
E. ALTER USER
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?
A. ORDER BY
B. DISTINCT
C. GROUP BY
D. UNIQUE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to store product quantities, and you want to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. INTEGER
B. DOUBLE
C. COUNT
D. FLOAT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement will result in the creation of an index?

passitdump 98-364 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE Road
(RoadID INTEGER NOT NULL,
Distance INTEGER NOT NULL)
The Road table contains the following data:

passitdump 98-364 exam question

You execute the following statement:
INSERT INTO Road VALUES (1234, 36)
What is the result?
A. an error stating that NULL values are not allowed
B. a new row in the table
C. an error stating that duplicate IDs are not allowed
D. a syntax error
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.
Which data type should you use?
A. VARCHAR (3, 30)
B. CHAR (3, 30)
C. VARCHAR (30)
D. CHAR (30)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
One reason to create a stored procedure is to:A. Improve performance.
B. Minimize storage space.
C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.
D. Give the user control of the query logic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which permission does a user need in order to run a stored procedure?
A. EXECUTE
B. ALLOW
C. CALL
D. RUN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table that are in the Furniture category.
You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.
After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:
A. Empty
B. Deleted
C. Unchanged
D. Archived
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:
A. User to a database.
B. Row of data to a table.
C. Table to a database.
D. Column to a table definition.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You have two tables. Each table has three rows.
How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Ports 20 and 21 are the default ports to secure a SQL Server.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. 1433 and 1434
C. 411 and 412
D. 67 and 68
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
You ate creating a database object named Student to store the following data:

passitdump 98-364 exam question

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
You develop a database to store data about textbooks. The data must be stored to process at a later time.
Which database object should you use to store the data?
A. View
B. Table
C. Function
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
First normal form requires that a database excludes repeating groups.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.B. Composite keys
C. Duplicate rows
D. Foreign keys
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You have the following SQL query
SELECT * FROM dbo.ProAthlete WHERE Salary > 500000
The query takes too much time to return data.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
Which item should you add to the Salary column?
A. Non-null constraint
B. Default constraint
C. Index
D. Foreign key
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Instructions: For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Each correct selection is worth one point.

passitdump 98-364 exam question passitdump 98-364 exam question

QUESTION 27
The following graphic shows the components of a SQL Server application. You access the SQL Server application through Internet Explorer.

passitdump 98-364 exam question passitdump 98-364 exam question passitdump 98-364 exam question

QUESTION 28
The following illustration shows the structure of a clustered index in a single partition:

passitdump 98-364 exam question

Instructions: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement Each correct selection is worth one point.

passitdump 98-364 exam question

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/98-364.html Microsoft 98-364 MTA is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Microsoft 98-364 dumps exam Microsoft Database Fundamentals training materials. Microsoft MTA exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

[Latest Questions] Latest IBM C2010-595 Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in IBM

Best IBM C2010-595 exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. https://www.passitdump.com/c2010-595.html 100% success and guarantee to pass IBM C2010-595 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
What are the three components that are used to construct a failure hierarchy within a failure class?
A. Fixes
B. Causes
C. Incidents
D. Problems
E. Remedies
F. Corrections
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 2
If a UFO request requires more than one transaction to satisfy the quantity, which cost will be displayed for the work
order record?
A. Lesser
B. Greater
C. Average
D. Standard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
The actual start date on a service request is populated by the system when the record is changed to which status?
A. NEW
B. DRAFT
C. INPROG
D. QUEUED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which application is used to create KPIs?
A. KPI Editor
B. KPI Viewer C. KPI Manager
D. KPI Administration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What does it mean when a purchase contract has a status of WSTART?
A. The contract has been revised to start.
B. The contract is waiting for approval to start.
C. The start date of this contract is in the future.
D. WSTART is not a valid status for a purchase contract.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is the default status of a newly created purchase order?
A. PEND
B. INPRG
C. DRAFT
D. WAPPR
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A meter has been defined to observe the oil color on an asset to monitor its condition.
Which meter type was used to accomplish this?
A. Group meter
B. Gauge meter
C. Continuous meter
D. Characteristic meter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company has five sites within one organization in their system. They want to activate automatic generation of work
orders for three of their sites.
Which option can help to achieve this? A. Work Orders are automatically generated for each active site.
B. From the Preventive Maintenance application select Generate Work Orders for all Sites.
C. Preventive maintenance options must be set up to auto-generate work orders at the site level.
D. Preventive maintenance options must be set up to auto-generate work orders at the organization level.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An inventory manager wants to track the cost of items in a storeroom and wants to use the cost for the most recently
purchased items when issued. Which costing method represents this requirement?
A. LIFO
B. FIFO
C. Average
D. Standard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In which two scenarios can an inventory usage record be changed to STAGED status?
A. If the current status of the inventory usage record is SHIPPED.
B. If the current status of the inventory usage record is ENTERED.
C. If the inventory usage record contains one or more lines of type RETURN.
D. If the inventory usage record contains one or more lines of type TRANSFER.
E. If the current status of the inventory usage record is COMPLETE or CANCELED.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
How is the description field updated on a work order when a route is applied?
A. If the route stop has no description, the first job plan task becomes the description.
B. If the route stop has a description, the route description becomes the work order description.
C. If the route stop has a description and refers to an asset, the route description becomes the asset description.
D. If the route stop has no description and refers to an asset, the route description becomes the route stop description.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which statement is true about flow control?
A. A flow action can be executed from an escalation point.
B. A flow action cannot be selected unless the work order is under flow control.
C. A task cannot be under flow control unless the work order is under flow control.
D. A flow action cannot be selected for a task unless the work order is under flow control.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two tasks can the Preventive Maintenance (PM) application be used to accomplish?
A. Auto-generate work orders per classification.
B. Auto-generate work orders at the organization level.
C. Select specific days, months, or seasons to generate work orders from a PM.
D. Create a PM hierarchy to schedule a group of work orders for an asset or location hierarchy.
E. Assign nested job plans to a master PM so that different levels of maintenance work can be scheduled at specified
intervals.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How are items deleted from an active job plan?
A. Delete the item and then save the record
B. Make a job plan revision and then delete the item
C. Change the job plan to WAPPR and then delete the item
D. Change the job plan to PENDING and then delete the item
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
When adding a new attribute to a classification, which data type option is invalid?
A. ALN
B. YORN
C. TABLE
D. NUMERIC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
What action is required prior to approving a new purchase contract?
A. Revise the contract.
B. Change the line status.
C. Authorize at least one site.
D. No further action is required to approve the contract.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What is the term assigned for each step in a work plan?
A. Task
B. Child
C. Relationship
D. Work Order
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A maintenance planner wants to manually generate a preventive maintenance (PM) work order within 60 days of its due
date to ensure tools and materials can be gathered on time.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Enter the value within the Generate Work Orders dialog window.
B. This is not possible because PM work orders cannot be generated until they are due.
C. By changing the Frequency Units to days and then setting the frequency to the number of days required.
D. By specifying the tools and materials required it will automatically detect that this PM\’s work order requires early
generation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The Item Assembly Structure can be used to create which two types of lists?
A. Items to be added to a kit
B. Spare parts for the given item
C. Manufacturers for the given item
D. Where Used assets for the given item E. Storeroom hierarchies for the given item
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
How can work order priorities be influenced in the Assignment Manager application?
A. modify the assignment status to priority
B. change the work priority and response time
C. use Set Priority Preferences for a specific assignment
D. change the response time relative to the work start date
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
When would a classification be copied in to a follow-up work order from a Service Request (SR)?
A. when the classification has children
B. when the classification has attributes
C. when the inherit hierarchy flag is selected
D. when the classification includes both the work order and SR Use With objects
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
What is a valid statement when work order tasks are generated for each route stop?
A. Route stops are sometimes bypassed
B. Work flows cannot control route stops
C. Route stops that become work order tasks will not support job plans
D. Locations of all route stops must be associated with an organization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
How can a rotating asset be returned to a storeroom?
A. use the Inventory Application
B. use the Storerooms Application
C. use the Inventory Usage Application
D. use the Shipment Receiving Application Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true regarding ticket templates, job plans, and activities?
A. Only job plans with a status of Active can be applied to ticket templates.
B. Activities specified on a service request using a job plan cannot be deleted.
C. A job plan can be applied by a ticket template or directly to the service request.
D. Activities specified on a job plan are viewable on the Plans tab of the Service Request application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which application is used to create a shipment?
A. Receiving
B. Item Master
C. Inventory Usage
D. Issues and Transfers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which statement is true about rotating items?
A. Rotating items are consumable parts.
B. Rotating items cannot be returned for repair.
C. Rotating items can only be installed at a location.
D. Rotating items can have an inventory value and balance.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
What is the purpose of the Reorder Point when its value is reached?
A. A special order item is reordered.
B. The vendor is contacted for shipment.
C. The inventory item should be reordered.
D. The automatic reorder process is scheduled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two fields must be defined when setting up a consignment item?
A. Vendor
B. Finish Date
C. Invoice type
D. Item number
E. Contract Date
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
When is a flow control action executed?
A. when a work order is saved through flow control
B. when the work order is started through a workflow
C. when the work order is started through a flow control
D. when the work order is completed through a workflow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
What must be true of an asset for it to be identified on a service request?
A. The asset must be flagged as public.
B. The asset must have a user or custodian specified.
C. The asset must be either in status OPERATING or NOT READY.
D. The asset must be in the same site as the default insert site of the logged in user.
Correct Answer: C

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/c2010-595.html IBM Certified Associate is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality IBM IBM Certified Associate IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Fundamentals training materials.

[Latest Questions] Latest Microsoft MB6-700 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Posted by admin on in Microsoft

High quality Microsoft MB6-700 exam practice questions and answers online update free try, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.
【Download Latest Full Version】https://www.passitdump.com/mb6-700.html The best Microsoft MB6-700 exam materials are written according to the latest real IT exams.

Question No : 1
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a project.
For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table). For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group). What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a project purchase order?
A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group
Answer: C
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 2             MB6-700 exam
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is invoiced.
Which type of project should you use?
A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals
Answer: C

Question No : 3
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?
A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You attach an invoice format to the project contract. Which item is controlled by the invoice format setting?
A. invoice output destination
B. invoice currency
C. invoice summarization
D. invoice orientation
Answer: C

Question No : 5
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to define?
A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet
Answer: D

Question No : 6
Which journalizing option is used only for time tracking?
A. No ledger
B. Profit and loss
C. Never ledger
D. Balance
Answer: A
mb6-700 exam
Question No : 7         MB6-700 exam
You need to set up a pay when paid (PWP) term for a project. Which project type should you choose?
A. time and material
B. internal
C. cost
D. fixed-price
Answer: A

Question No : 8
You need to configure worker validation project assignments to ensure that certain projects are available for a specific worker. On which form should you configure this type of validation?
A. project
B. project contract
C. worker
D. project management and accounting parameters
Answer: C

Question No : 9
Which three items are valid project types? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Investment
B. Profit and loss
C. Time
D. Time and material
E. Quotation
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 10
Which two statements about a header project are true? MB6-700 exam (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Transactions cannot be posted to a header project.
B. A header project is designated by the Project group field.
C. Each level of a project hierarchy can have only one project header.
D. A header project must be created at the top level of a hierarchy.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION 11
You set up project management and accounting. You need to represent the types of costs and revenues
that are defined for all projects in your entire organization.
Which item should you create to organize categories?
A. shared category
B. expense category
C. project category
D. category group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12

You need a quick snapshot view of a project’s progress. Which form should you use?
A. Invoice control
B. Project statements
C. Cash flow
D. Cost control
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which two items are determined by the cost templates for advanced fixed-price projects? (Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the amount of hours that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
B. the amount of expenses that can be posted for advanced fixed-price projects
C. whether to calculate the degree of completion on the posted amount or quantity
D. the categories included in calculating the degree of completion
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You have several transactions that are not going to be invoiced. You need to ensure that these
transactions are still moved to the profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use?
A. Post costs
B. Hour journal
C. Expense journal
D. Item journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which two statements about project hierarchies are true? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. Only the parent project can be used for invoicing.
B. Subprojects must be configured with the same project type.
C. Subprojects must be configured to represent different project phases.
D. Subprojects can be used to process special accounting requirements.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16

You set up an effective labor rate for a worker. The hourly cost price is 60 USD. 40 hours are available in
the work week calendar. The worker submits only 30 hours for the week.
What is the effective labor rate that is calculated for this worker?
A. (30*40)/60 = 20
B. (30/40)*60 = 45
C. (60*30)/40 = 45
D. (60*40)/30 = 80
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which statement about the effective labor rate (ELR) feature is true?
A. Effective labor rate is not enabled by default for all workers and can be enabled for the workers you
select.
B. Effective labor rate is enabled when a cost price amount and calendar are specified for that worker.
C. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and can be disabled for the workers you select.
D. Effective labor rate is enabled by default for all workers and cannot be disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which item is used to transfer costs from work in process (WIP) accounts to profit and loss accounts?
A. Post costs form
B. Adjustments form
C. On-account posting
D. Expense journal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which statement for both the cost and the time project types is true?
A. Both allow registering hour transactions.
B. Both allow capitalizing on balance sheet accounts.
C. Both allow registering expense transactions.
D. Both allow posting hour transactions on profit and loss accounts.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
You work with a fixed-price project. To which process do the completed contract and completedpercentage assessment principles relate?
A. posting revenue
B. transferring costs from balance sheet to profit and loss accounts
C. posting costs
D. accumulating costs in balance sheet accounts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
What is the difference between advanced and simple internal projects?
A. Advanced internal projects can track expense transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
B. Advanced internal projects can use work in process (WIP) to post costs; simple internal projects
cannot.
C. Advanced internal projects can track hour transactions; simple internal projects cannot.
D. Advanced internal projects allow on-account posting; simple internal projects do not.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
An internal project that includes work in process (WIP) is completed.
You need to ensure that the costs posted to the balance accounts from hour, expense, and item
transactions are moved back to profit and loss accounts.
Which form should you use to move the costs?
A. Ledger updates
B. Ledger posting setup
C. Project groups
D. Post costs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Which activity is enabled by configuring the project sort fields?
A. replacing the cost categories
B. substituting for a subproject
C. analyzing project profitability
D. allocating expenses related to the project
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 24
To which funding type can you apply payment retention?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Organization
D. Customer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which funding source type can appear only once on a project contract?
A. On hold
B. Grant
C. Customer
D. Organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
You assign resources to a project.
You need to define the scheduling requirements for the project.
Which three actions are scheduling requirements? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Setting up the calendar to use for the workers on the project
B. Specifying the estimated hourly rate for the workers on the project
C. Specifying the type of calendar for the project
D. Setting the start date and end date of the project
E. Specifying the estimated number of worker hours required to complete the project
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Before you can use the resource scheduling feature and assign workers to projects, the
following prerequisites must be met:
* The Project III license code must be enabled.
* Project parameters must be set up to define the minimum thresholds for how closely a worker’s skills and
availability should match the requirements for a project or activity. This ust be done before the worker can
be included in search results.
* (A) A worker must be assigned a calendar so that the worker’s weekly capacity in hours be specified.
To assign a calendar to a worker, use the following procedure.
1. Click Human resources > Common > Workers > Workers.
2. Select a worker, and then, on the Action Pane, in the Maintain group, click Edit.
3. In the Workerform, click the Employment link, and then, in the Calendar field, select a calendar.
* (E) Before scheduling can occur, the scheduling calendar and the total work effort (in hours) for the
project or activity must be specified.* The worker’s education, skills, certifications, project experience, and other attributes must be specified.
Reference: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 resource scheduling for projects, White Paper, Resource
scheduling prerequisites

QUESTION 27
You transfer a project quotation with a work breakdown structure to a new project.
Which three project data sets can be created during the transfer process? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Invoice proposal
B. Project budget
C. Forecast
D. Item requirements
E. Billing rules
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Transfer the Confirmed project quotation into an actual project(New or existing) and then run
a wizard to create project WBS, forecasts, project budgets etc. automatically right from the quotation.
Note:
* The work breakdown structure of dynamics AX 2012 is a hierarchical representation of the activities and
child activities in a project and helps the project managers to do the following.
Define the overall work scope of the projects.
Each descending level of the hierarchy represents increasingly detailed information about the project work.
It helps identifying and creating milestones in the project.
It also helps managers to soft/hard commit resources to the activities/tasks.
Project managers can create WBS templates and use them any time they want to plan a new project. They
can also create the WBS directly on a project.

QUESTION 28
You create a project contract.
You need to include indirect costs.
Which billing rule should you select?
A. Progress
B. Unit of delivery
C. Time and material
D. Milestone
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 29
You create an internal project.
You need to enable project budgeting for your project.
Which three actions are mandatory to enable budgeting for the project? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Selecting the budget overrun default
B. Setting the budget planning configurationC. Enabling budget tracking
D. Setting the budget control configuration
E. Setting the transaction type
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DE: Budget control can be setup on the transactions that you desire to put in budget controls on. The
Budget control configuration allows you to select through check boxes which transactions types you want
to enable budget control on.

QUESTION 30
Why would you create an estimate?
A. To set a project’s budget
B. To create an hours forecast
C. To define the forecast model
D. To monitor a project’s progress
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/mb6-700.html 100% Pass Guarantee.

Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-mb6-700.aspx

Watch the video to learn more:

[Latest Questions] Latest EMC E20-690 Dump Exam Study Materials Free Try

Posted by admin on in EMC

High quality EMC E20-690 dump exam Platform Engineer VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers training materials. Latest and most accurate EMC E20-690 dump exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers, https://www.passitdump.com/e20-690.html download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A customer has a Unified VNX field installed in their rack. All documentation materials included in the original shipment
are stored in the rack. Which item from the original package can be used to verify and label cabling prior to an FRU
replacement procedure?
A. The Installation Guide
B. The packing list
C. The Resource CD
D. The unpacking instructions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a MCx VNX for a new EMC customer, the system admin asks where the latest VNX documentation can
be found. What is the correct location?
A. support.emc.com
B. powerlink.emc.com
C. supportinfo.emc.com
D. elabadvisor.emc.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In a VNX for File system, what is connected to the Control Station Eth1 port?
A. Secondary Control Station
B. Primary DM MGMT network
C. Secondary DM MGMT network
D. Customer Network for MGMT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Performing an FRU replacement on a Unified VNX requires managing the ConnectHome system. Which user can check
and change configuration settings for ConnectHome using the CLI on a Control Station?
A. root only
B. sysadmin
C. root or nasadmin D. nasadmin only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer\’s network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How would you connect to an SP in a degraded state to retrieve SPCollects?
A. RemotelyAnywhere
B. Unisphere
C. HyperTerminal or PuTTY
D. Unisphere Client
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
From where can you download VNX software?
A. EMC Services Partner website
B. EMC FTP site
C. Engineering website
D. Procedure Generator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

passitdump e20-690 exam question

What is the IP address of the indicated network?
A. 128.221.252.0
B. 128.222.1.0
C. 128.221.254.0
D. 127.0.0.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
While at a customer\’s site, you need access to a VNX Storage Processor on IP address 10.11.12.13. You want to use
RemotelyAnywhere but https://10.11.12.13 does not open the login screen.
Which port needs to be added to the URL?
A. 9519
B. 443
C. 80
D. 119

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which details can be determined when viewing a specific event within the andquot;current alertsandquot; page?
A. The storage system that generated the alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
B. The number of incidents for the type of alert The severity type The domain where the storage system resides
C. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The domain where the
storage system resides
D. The number of incidents for the type of alert The storage system that generated the alert The severity type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
During a VNX gateway manual installation you are registering Data Mover initiators on the VNX Block back-end array.
Which 8-byte WWN is the initiator for Data Mover 2 HBA 0?
A. 5006016036A00190
B. 5006016136A00190
C. 5006016836A00190
D. 5006016936A00190
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which system check is performed during the installation of a VNX File Unified system?
A. Cable check
B. SMTP validation
C. Modem test
D. DNS resolution
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In addition to VNX Installation Assistant, what other tools and methods are available for VNX registration?
A. Unisphere, Standalone Registration Wizard
B. VNX Installation Toolkit, Standalone Registration Wizard
C. System Reports Wizard, VNX Installation Toolkit
D. Unisphere, System Reports Wizard Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which software tool is used for initializing, registering, and basic configuration of new VNX for File/Unified platforms?
A. VNX Installation Assistant
B. Unisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Unisphere Service Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

passitdump e20-690 exam question

From the highlighted information in the picture, which type of I/O module is represented?
A. 4 port 1G Base T iSCSI
B. 4 port 8G FC
C. 4 port 8Gb copper ethernet
D. 4 port FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your customer contacts you about an illuminated hardware \’fault\’ LED on a VNX LCC component. Using ESRS, you
access the system with Unisphere and determine that the faulted LCC component needs to be replaced.
How would you obtain the LCC part number for ordering a new replacement part?
A. Use the SolVe Desktop tool and view the specific VNX model parts guide.
B. Access the Alerts section in Unisphere and locate the specific alert for the faulted LCC.
C. Launch Unisphere Service Manager and perform a system verification operation.
D. Access the Hardware for File section of Unisphere and locate the faulted LCC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
You are onsite to replace a faulted Data Mover within a VNX8000 and note the following:
The storage administrators have received alerts that Server_6 has faulted but Server_6 now appears online.
Server_3 is configured as a standby for Server_2
Server_7 is configured as a standby for Server_6
Which slot in the diagram contains the active data mover Server_6?
A. Server_7
B. Server_6
C. Server_2
D. Server_3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You have completed a VNX Unified installation and are now verifying the configuration. You notice that the
ConnectHome configuration is incorrect. You attempt to correct parameters using the CLI and are denied access. What
could be the problem?
A. Not logged in as the root user
B. Not logged in as the sysadmin
C. Not logged in as nasadmin
D. Not logged in as administrator
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which operations can you perform with VNX Installation Assistant?
A. Create RAID groups, storage groups, and LUNs
B. Configure LUN masking for non-VNX host access
C. Configure SnapSure and replication
D. Configure MirrorView and SnapView
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
When using USM\’s Capture Diagnostic Data feature, where are the files automatically stored upon completion of this
task?
A. They are in the C:\EMC\repository folder located on the system running USM.
B. They are automatically uploaded to EMC support if the system is registered.
C. The user is prompted to either view them or upload them to EMC if ConnectHome is configured.
D. They are automatically stored in the repository located on the VNX vault drives.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

passitdump e20-690 exam question

Which connection is indicated by the number 7 in this VNX SPE Management Module?
A. Serial Console B. Serial (unused)
C. Service port
D. Serial Management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which storage subsystems can be directly connected to a VNX gateway through Fibre Channel?
A. CLARiiON and Symmetrix only
B. CLARiiON and VNX only
C. Symmetrix, CLARiiON, and VNX
D. Symmetrix and VNX only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
You are an EMC service provider and want to install the ESRS IP client solution. The workstation on which you want to
install this software is on a network with a proxy server. What information must you provide in order to be able to install
the solution?
A. You must provide your proxy server IP address and the array IP address.
B. Service partners are not allowed to install the ESRS IP client at a customer site.
C. You must provide your Powerlink SecurID credentials and the proxy configuration.
D. You must provide the array serial number and the proxy configuration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
You are upgrading the VNX OE for File to a new version and choose to reboot the Data Movers during the upgrade.
How long will the users lose access to their files?
A. Access is lost for a time estimated by the USM tool.
B. Access is lost for two minutes.
C. Access to the files is never lost.
D. Access is lost for a time estimated by the HealthCheck tool.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

passitdump e20-690 exam question

Which letter refers to the SPSs?
A. D
B. B
C. C
D. A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which condition must be met before starting the Unisphere Storage System Initialization Utility?
A. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the storage system
B. Computer used for the installation is on the same subnet as the VNX internal network
C. Amber lights on the power supplies are blinking at 4 Hz
D. Blue lights on the Storage Processors are blinking at 1 Hz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28

In which folder can the SPcollects be found when accessing a storage processor through Remotely Anywhere?
A. c:\dumps
B. c:\temp
C. c:\EMC
D. c:\NDU
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You are sent to a secure customer site to install a VNX, where the use of cell phones and mobile hot spots is prohibited.
When you arrive you find that your VNX Installation procedure file is corrupted.
Using one of the customer\’s workstations where can a copy of the VNX installation procedure be found?
A. mydocs.emc.com/VNX
B. support.emc.com/VNX
C. emc.com/engineering/VNX
D. powerlink.emc.com/VNX
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You have just replaced a defective component in a Data Mover. Which command can be run to verify the system returns
no errors?
A. # /nas/bin/nas_checkup
B. # /nas/bin/nas_server -info -all
C. # watch /nasmcd/getreason
D. # dmesg
Correct Answer: A

Read more: https://www.passitdump.com/e20-690.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[Latest Questions] Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 Dumps Exam Study Guides Demo Youtube (Q1-Q20)

Posted by admin on in Cisco

Get your Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps exam preparation questions in form of 300-085 PDF. Lead4pass is the best site for providing online preparation material for 300-085 exam. “Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNP Collaboration https://www.leads4pass.com/300-085.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. 300-085 CAPPS – Cisco If you are looking to get Cisco Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0 certification by passing exam 300-085 then you can pass it in one go.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Application v1.0
Exam Code: 300-085
Total Questions: 165 Q&As

High quality Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

High quality Cisco 300-365 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Vl3BcSbXnfokBm-tIiVaqcq7OR7m3ux-

Latest Cisco 300-080 dump exam study materials free try. The best useful Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps vce software online update free try.

Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
In Cisco Unity Express, which two Call Handling options can you configure on the Voice Mail tab of the GUI? (Choose two.)
A. distribution list
B. application parameter settings script
C. business schedule
D. voice mail operator number
E. calling search space
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
When using Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence Service in a federated network configuration, which statement about Message Archiver is true?
A. The sender cluster sends the message to the remote cluster before archiving it.
B. Message Archiver is not supported in a federated network configuration.
C. The sender cluster archives the message before sending it to the remote cluster.
D. The message is archived on the remote cluster only.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. SNMP community name
D. configuration template
E. enable remote access
F. persistent settings
G. E164 alias
H. gatekeeper
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?
A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Unity Express
C. Cisco Unity
D. Cisco Unity Mobile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? 300-085 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 7
Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)
A. user
B. device
C. dial plan
D. routing rules
E. zone information
F. phone book
G. FindMe
H. gateway
Correct Answer: ABFG

QUESTION 8
Which two options are types of directory handlers? (Choose two.)
A. voice-enabled
B. phone keypad
C. forwarded rules
D. direct rules
E. standard hours
F. closed hours
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?
A. TMSXE
B. TMSXN
C. TMSBA
D. TMSPE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about integrating Cisco Unity Connection with an LDAP directory and creating users by importing data from Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unity Connection users will not automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
B. Cisco Unity Connection users will automatically authenticate against the LDAP directory when Cisco Unified Communications Manager is integrated with the LDAP.
C. Separate passwords must be maintained for Cisco Unity Connection web applications and Cisco Unified Communications Manager web applications.
D. Automatic synchronization updates the Cisco Unity Connection database with new data for new and existing users when you add users to the LDAP directory.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
The administrator of a Cisco Unity Connection system would like to set up a new employee and assign him a password of 123. The system gives him an error when he attempts to save the user.
Which two of the following settings sections and features of Cisco Unity Connection should the administrator change to set up the user? (Choose two.)
A. User Template > Maximum Credential Length
B. Authentication Rules > Minimum Credential Length
C. User Template > Check for Trivial Passwords
D. Restriction Tables > Minimum Credential Length
E. Restriction Tables > Check for Trivial Passwords
F. Authentication Rules > Check for Trivial Passwords
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 12
What are two types of integration between Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. SCCP integration
B. TIMG integration
C. SIP integration
D. PIMG integration
E. H.323 integration
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which three are valid system connectivity statuses for systems that are automatically added to Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. Inaccessible
B. Failed
C. Connected
D. Reachable on Public Internet
E. Behind Firewall
F. Online
G. Remote Site
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for directed calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? 300-085 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Log in to their mailbox with their PIN.
B. Listen to the opening greeting.
C. Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D. Enter user ID and PIN.
E. Log in to remote mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)
A. endpoint system upgrades
B. edit call control
C. manage phone books
D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging
E. create voicemail account
F. create new conference
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 17
Which service must you restart, in order to enable file transfers on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence server?
A. Cisco SIP Proxy
B. Cisco Presence Engine
C. Cisco XCP Router
D. Cisco Sync Agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which troubleshooting tool is used to check and verify the individual modules in the Cisco Unified Presence server?
A. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)
A. endpoints
B. users
C. Cisco MCUs
D. multiway address
E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
G. video AutoAttendant numbers
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which service parameter must be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable SIP PUBLISH on a SIP trunk as the mechanism for presence interaction with Cisco Unified Presence?
A. IM and Presence publish trunk
B. route class trunk
C. processing on QSIG trunk
D. fail call over SIP trunk
Correct Answer: A

High quality Cisco 300-085 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1KqBhub_phrkVa46jHQbdxUZR4DIwxB_h

High quality Cisco 300-365 dumps pdf: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Vl3BcSbXnfokBm-tIiVaqcq7OR7m3ux-

New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-085 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. Cisco CCNP Collaboration https://www.leads4pass.com/300-085.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-085 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Collaboration. It is the best choice for you to pass Cisco 300-085 exam.