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[2020.10] latest update Cisco 300-515 braindumps and online practice test from Leads4Pass

Posted by admin on October 20, 2020 in 300-515 Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SVPI), Cisco, Cisco 300-515, cisco 300-515 dump, cisco 300-515 exam dumps, cisco 300-515 exam questions, cisco 300-515 pdf, Cisco CCNP

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Latest updates Cisco 300-515 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about MPLS L3 VPN RDs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They enable EIGRP to use address families to separate traffic between IPv4 and VPNv4.
B. They are represented as 32-bit values
C. They are represented as 64-bit values.
D. They enable OSPF to import and export routes into the global routing table of a router.
E. They allow BGP to uniquely identify duplicate routes.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the EVC configuration items from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q2-2

QUESTION 3
In a typical service provider environment, which two tools are used to help scale PE router connectivity requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. VPNv4 address family
C. originator ID
D. cluster ID
E. confederations
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
While troubleshooting an AToM L2VPN service, a network consultant notices that the AC Layer 2 encapsulations are
different. Which action should the consultant take in order to make the MPLS L2VPN work?
A. tag-rewrite on the ingress and egress PE router
B. interworking IP configuration on the last PE router before label disposition
C. nonrouted interworking setup to properly translate only the Layer 2 information from the AC
D. interworking IP configuration on both the AC terminations on the PEs
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-16-11/mp-l2-vpnsxe-16-11-book/l2vpn-interworking.html

QUESTION 5 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. PE1 and PE2 are exchanging VPNv4 routes for CE1 and CE2, and PE3 contains the default route
to the internet. If the three devices are operating normally, which two conclusions describe this configuration? (Choose
two.)
A. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can exchange routes only between their respective VRFs on PE1 and PE2.
B. All three routers must be running a distance-vector routing protocol.
C. All three routers must be running MP-BGP.
D. The CE1 and CE2 VRFs can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
E. Only the CE2 VRF can access the default route provided by the Internet VRF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
The CTO of a company requires the support of a network consultant to deliver an MPLS solution without resigning to a
certain degree of redundancy and scalability. Which solution effectively scales to hundreds or thousands of sites?
A. L2VPN with the broadcast traffic processed at the ingress PE.
B. L3VPN with direct LSP connectivity between all PEs.
C. L2VPN by encapsulating multiple frame formats with interworking.
D. L3VPN using a hierarchical topology of N-PEs and U-PEs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 will accept multicast routes with a route-target of 12:1.
B. 192.168.1.2 must be reachable by all routers participating in the mvpn-intranet MVRF.
C. Router 1 has statically defined thresholds for data MDT.
D. The MVRF must be configured on each router on the customer and service provider networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the primary differences between MPLS Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling.
B. Layer 2 VPNs use AToM, but Layer 3 VPNs use MPLS/BGP.
C. Layer 2 VPNs use BGP, but Layer 3 VPNs use VPLS.
D. Layer 2 VPNs use L2TPv3 tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use GRE tunneling.
E. Layer 2 VPNs use IPsec tunneling, but Layer 3 VPNs use pseudowires to provide tunneling.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q9

Refer to the exhibit. If the two devices are operating normally, which two conclusions can you draw from this
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. CE1 must use OSPF to establish a neighbor relationship with PE1.
B. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 222:2 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
C. PE1 labels the routes it learns from CE1 with the route-target 111:1 and shares them with its VPNv4 peers.
D. The PE-CE routes between the devices are being exchanged by OSPF
E. CE1 is supporting CSC.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A customer carrier running MPLS VPN wants to utilize a backbone carrier to forward traffic and
exchange VPNv4 prefixes between the two customer carrier networks depicted. Which two sets of routers must
establish MPiBGP sessions? (Choose two.)
A. BB-PE-A and CC-PE-B
B. CC-PE-A and CC-PE-B
C. BB-PE-A and BB-PE-B
D. CC-PE-A and BB-PE-A
E. BB-PE-A and BB-P-A
F. CC-PE-A and CC-P-A
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ias_and_csc/configuration/12-2sx/mp-ias-andcsc-12-2sx-book/mp-carrier-bgp.html

QUESTION 11
You try to configure MPLS VPN VRF Selection based on a source IP address on an interface that has VRF configured,
but you receive an error. Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the source IP address.
B. Add the IP address to the VRF table.
C. Remove the VRF from the interface.
D. Configure static routes for the VRF.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/vrfselec.html

QUESTION 12 lead4pass 300-515 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The mroute table is cleared.
B. Router 1 accepts multicast routes with a tag of 12:1
C. A Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is generated with 192.168.1.2 as the source IP address of router 1.
D. An LSP virtual interface tunnel is created.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which optional information can be included with an IPv6 ping to support the troubleshooting process?
A. IPv4 IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. IPv6 hostname
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-book/ip6-mngapps.html

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[2020.7-2020.8] Microsoft 70-740 exam practice questions and success secrets

Posted by admin on July 31, 2020 in Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016, MCSA: Windows Server 2016 Exam certification 2020, Microsoft, microsoft 70-740, microsoft 70-740 certification practice exam answers, microsoft 70-740 pdf, microsoft 70-740 practice exam

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Exam 70-740: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-740

Candidates for this exam are involved with the installation, storage, and compute functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates perform general installation tasks, as well as creating and managing images for deployment.

Candidates should have experience with local and server storage solutions including the configuration of disks and volumes, Data Deduplication, High Availability, Disaster Recovery, Storage Spaces Direct, and Failover Clustering solutions. The candidates should also be familiar with managing Hyper-V and Containers as well as maintaining and monitoring servers in physical and compute environments.

Skills measured

Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments (10-15%)
Implement Storage Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Hyper-V (20-25%)
Implement Windows Containers (5-10%)
Implement High Availability (30-35%)
Maintain and Monitor Server Environments (10-15%)

Latest Updates Microsoft 70-740 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

You have a stretch cluster that contains four nodes.
You run Get-ClusterFaultDomain and receive the output shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab).

Node1 and Node2 are in a data center in an Active Directory site named London_Site. Node3 and Node4 are in an
Active Directory site named Berlin_Site.
You need to ensure that the active nodes are in London_Site unless both Node1 and Node2 are offline.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

References: https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Failover-Clustering/Site-aware-Failover-Clusters-in-WindowsServer-2016/ba-p/372060

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click
Operations Master.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

This solution only shows the domain FSMO roles, not the forest FSMO roles.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

QUESTION 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have two servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role and Docker
installed.
You pull the Microsoft/IIS Docker image to Server1.
You need to view the available space in the Microsoft/IIS Docker image.
Solution: You run the following commands.
docker run -name container1 -d Microsoft/IIS docker exec -I container1 cmd.exe dir
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/commandline/container_exec/#options https://www.windowscommandline.com/get-file-size-directory-size-command/

QUESTION 4

You are preparing an image of Windows Server 2016.
The image is missing the driver for a network adapter that is required in your environment.
You need to ensure that the image contains the network adapter driver.
Which three cmdlets should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the? answer area and arrange them m the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that has two network adapters.
You need to create a NIC team on VM1.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/create-a-new-nicteam-on-a-host-computer-or-vm https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/netlbfo/new-netlbfoteam?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 6

You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that is in a Running state.
On Server1, you export VM1 and then you import VM1 on Server2.
What is the current state of VM1 on Server2?
A. Paused
B. Off
C. Saved
D. Running

Correct Answer: C

References: https://blog.workinghardinit.work/2016/06/16/live-export-a-running-virtual-machine-or-a-checkpoint/

QUESTION 7

Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you
can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server. Which type of virtual
network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well as any network traffic between the
management operating system and the external network.
A. Private virtual network
B. Internal virtual network

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to deploy the first node cluster of a Network Controller cluster.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2. Site1 contains 10
domain controllers Site1 and Site2 connect to each other by using a WAN link. You run the Active Directory Domain
Services Configuration Wizard as shown in the following graphic.

QUESTION 10

You have a Hyper-V cluster that uses Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). The cluster contains 20 virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a single disk.
You create a storage QoS policy that sets the minimum IOPS to 100 and the maximum IOPS to 200.
You need to ensure that the storage traffic of each virtual machine complies with the storage QoS policy.
What should you run?
A. Set-VMHardDiskDrive
B. Set-VM
C. Set-VMHost
D. Set-VHD

Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/hyper-v/set-vmharddiskdrive?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 11

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016
and is configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that you can manually increase and decrease the amount of memory allocated to VM1 while VM1 is
running. What should you do?
A. Disable Dynamic Memory
B. Enable Integration Services
C. Upgrade the configuration version

Correct Answer: A

References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/hot-add-remove-memory-hyper-v-2016/

QUESTION 12

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices An answer choice maybe
correct for more than one question in the series Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named
Cluster1 As virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1 You need to configure monitoring of VM1 The solution must
move VM1 to a different node if the Print Spooler service on VM1 stops unexpectedly Which tool should you use?
A. the clussvc.exe command
B. the cluster.exe command
C. the Computer Management console
D. the configurehyperv.exe command
E. the Disk Management console
F. the Failover Cluster Manager console
G. the Hyper-V Manager console
H. the Server Manager Desktop app

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 13

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains tour servers named Server

Server2. Server3. and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server 1 and Server2 are nodes in Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 You have a highly available virtual machine named
VM1.
Server1 is the owner node of VM1 Server3 and Server4 are nodes of a scale-out file server named Cluster2.
The storage on Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

VM1 is stored in C:\ClusterStorage\Volume1.
You need to move the virtual disk of VM1 to a different location.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

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Posted by admin on June 2, 2020 in acmp hpe6-a71, Aruba Certified Mobility Professional Exam, aruba hpe6-a71, aruba hpe6-a71 exam dumps, aruba hpe6-a71 Exam practice questions, HP, HP Aruba ACMP Exam certification 2020

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Aruba Certified Mobility Professional Exam: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A71

This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.

Latest Updates HP HPE6-A71 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
A VIA client tries to initially connect to a corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN
connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500
are configured.
Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. UDP 8200
C. ESP
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
An administrator supports a group of employees that connect to the corporate office using the VIA client. An Aruba
Mobility Controller (MC), behind a corporate firewall, terminates the user\\’s VPN sessions. The VPN sessions fail to
establish because of the existing firewall rules.
Which connections must the administrator allow on the firewall? (Choose three.)
A. TCP 443
B. UDP 8211
C. UDP 8202
D. UDP 500
E. UDP 4500
F. TCP 4443
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 3
What can be determined from the command output shown below? braindump4it HPE6-A71 exam questions q3

A. The synchronized data is protected by VRRP.
B. The command was executed on the standby Mobility Master (MM).
C. The synchronization period is at its default value.
D. The other Mobility Master (MM) is the active license server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A guest establishes an authenticated wireless session to an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). The controller uses a
ClearPass server for all AAA functions.
Which AAA component disconnects the user when the guest exceeds their allowed duration?
A. SNMP Disconnect
B. Active Directory Session Limits
C. RADIUS Authorization Profile
D. RADIUS Change of Authorization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Where on the Mobility Master (MM) can an administrator configure the VIA connection profile?
A. User Roles
B. L3 Authentication
C. AAA Profiles
D. L2 Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company opens a new branch office and a RAP is used to connect to a corporate office Aruba Mobility Controller
(MC). The company needs to provide connectivity to the office across the street. There is an AP across the street.
However,
there is no wired connectivity between the buildings.
Which actions can the administrator select to provide the required connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Implement two mesh clusters.
B. Provision the RAP as a Remote Mesh Portal.
C. Provision all APs at the branch offices as Mesh Points.
D. Provision all APs at the branch offices as Mesh Portals.
E. Implement one of the APS as a Mesh Point.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to apply a patch to an Aruba environment to implement improvements for AirWatch. What is the
Aruba recommended approach for this process without a reboot?
A. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on the Mobility Master.
B. Upgrade the ArubaOS by the use of Live Upgrades (in-service upgrades).
C. Upgrade the AirMatch Loadable Service Module (LSM) on each Mobility Controller.
D. Create controller partitions to minimize downtime.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator enables AP load balancing for a cluster of Mobility Controllers (MCs). APS connected to the cluster
have an LMS IP address configured in their AP Group configuration. No other parameters are changed in the cluster. If
the two load AP thresholds are reached, what occurs?
A. The users and APs are rebalanced across the cluster.
B. The APS is rebalanced across the cluster.
C. The users are rebalanced across the cluster.
D. The APS always stays connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP Group profile.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An administrator supports an Aruba wireless solution that uses ClearPass to implement server role assignments. A user
reports that they are not able to access the correct department resources. The administrator determines from the
connected controller that the user is associated with the login user profile instead of the department user profile.
What should the administrator examine on the ClearPass server to determine the Aruba VSA User Role value that
ClearPass returns to the controller?
A. Accounting
B. Audit Viewer
C. Event Viewer
D. Access Tracker
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
An administrator manages an Aruba wireless network. ClearPass is used to centralize AAA functions. The administrator
wants to implement server role derivation.
Which information will the ClearPass server return in regard to the user role assignment?
A. RADIUS VSA Firewall-Role
B. Aruba VSA Aruba-User-Role
C. RADIUS VSA User-Role
D. Aruba VSA Firewall-Role
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. braindump4it HPE6-A71 exam questions q11

An administrator wants to verify the operation of MultiZone in a network. The administrator uses the command to show ap
debug multizone to generate the output shown in the exhibit. Based on the output, which statement is true?
A. Zone 1 is the primary zone, and zone 0 is the data zone.
B. The MultiZone APs are in a cluster.
C. The maximum VAPs in the MultiZone is 15.
D. The primary zone has limited the data zone to one WLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should
be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. root
B. network-operations
C. location-API-management
D. AP-provisioning
Correct Answer: B

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Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/TR/datacard/Exam/HPE6-A70

The Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam tests your knowledge and skills to deploy AOS 8 single-site, on premise, geographically simple enterprise WLANs.

Latest Updates HP HPE6-A70 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
An Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution has a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. A test login on a
wireless client fails.
How can a network administrator determine whether the RADIUS server rejected the credentials or another issue
occurred?
A. Use the tools in the MM Dashboard > Security window.
B. Use the MC AAA Server Test Diagnostic tool.
C. Ping the IP address configured as the RADIUS server.
D. View Technical Support information for the MM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company has an Aruba solution that supports an employee WLAN. How can network administrators control in which
Do subnets users receive IP addresses?
A. Assign switch ports connected to APs to VLANs associated with the desired subnets.
B. Set the VLANs associated with desired subnets in the WLAN settings.
C. Configure firewall policies that permit the desired subnet, and add them to the initial role for the WLAN.
D. In the WLAN settings, configure User role rules with the desired subnet addresses as match criteria.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q3

The exhibit shows the AAA profile for a WLAN on an Aruba solution. This WLAN uses 802.1X authenticate users to a
RADIUS server. A user successfully authenticates with 802.1X, but the RADIUS server does not send a role
assignment.
How does the Aruba firewall handle the role assignment for this user?
A. It does not assign a role.
B. It applies the Aruba VSA role, employee.
C. It assigns the logon role.
D. It assigns the authenticated role.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q4

Which role must AP 1 play?
A. Remote AP (RAP)
B. Mesh Portal AP
C. Instant AP (IAP)
D. Mesh Point AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)?
A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade AirMatch separately as a loadable service
module (LSM).
B. Upgrade Client Match and AirMatch separately as loadable service modules (LSMs).
C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.
D. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client Match separately as a loadable service
module (LSM).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network administrator configures this policy: hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q6

Users to which this policy applies are unable to receive IP addresses with DHCP. How should the administrator fix the
issue?
A. Move the user any svc-DHCP permit rule to the bottom of the list.
B. Remove the deny rule from the policy.
C. Use the correct service alias in the user any svc-DHCP permit rule.
D. Change the user to any in the user any svc-DHCP permit rule.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Exhibit 1 hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q7

Exhibit 2

hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q7-1

A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution and needs a new WLAN for the corporate campus. A
network administrator completes the creation of this WLAN, as shown in Exhibit 1. When administrators try to test a
connection to the WLAN, the WLAN does not show up in the list of WLANs on the client. The administrator can see the
WLAN in the list, as shown in Exhibit 2.
What is the error?
A. The configuration is not deployed.
B. The WLAN is configured at a lower level in the Managed Network hierarchy.
C. The Mobility Master (MM) does not have an active PEFNG license.
D. The WLAN is configured as a hidden SSID.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. Where can a network administrator look to find a list of
alerts about a variety of issues on the MM or managed devices?
A. the top banner
B. the MM Maintenance pages
C. the Performance dashboard
D. the Potential issues dashboard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to host a guest login portal with this solution, and the login portal
must give guests the option to create their own login accounts.
How can a network administrator help meet these criteria?
A. Choose the Internal captive portal with an email registration option for the guest WLAN.
B. Choose ClearPass or the other external captive portal option for the guest WLAN.
C. Make sure to create a guest provisioning account for the guest WLAN.
D. Disable authentication in the captive portal profile for the guest WLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
How can a network administrator provide high availability for APs deployed in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based
architecture?
A. Deploy all licenses locally to APs, so that they can continue to function if they lose contact with their controller.
B. Configure APs to convert to controller-less Instant AP mode during controller failure.
C. Establish clusters of Mobility Controllers (MCs).
D. Configure MM to provide backup AP tunnel termination in case of controller failure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit 1

hp HPE6-A70 exam questions q11

A company has an Aruba solution. Client 1 is assigned to the users1 role, and Client 2 is assigned to the users2 role.
The exhibits show current firewall rules for those roles. The network1 alias used to be 10.1.1.0/24, but the network
administrator now changes the network1 alias to 172.16.1.0/24. Client 1 and Client 2 both then send a packet destined
to 172.16.1.10.
How does the firewall handle these packets?
A. It denies both packets.
B. It denies the packet from Client 1 and permits the packet from Client 2.
C. It permits both packets.
D. It permits the packet from Client 1 and denies the packet from Client 2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. Under which circumstance will an AP radio change
channel without the use of the Mobility Master (MM)?
A. when the MM detects that a different channel has significant better quality
B. when the AP detects a large amount of interference on its channel
C. when the Mobility Controller (MC) detects a rogue AP on the channel
D. when the Client Match rules indicate that nearby clients do not support the current channel
Correct Answer: B

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Get free RedHat EX300 exam dumps, latest exam question channel

Posted by admin on May 13, 2020 in EX300 dumps, RedHat

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Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7：https://www.redhat.com/en/services/training/ex300-red-hat-certified-engineer-rhce-exam-red-hat-enterprise-linux-7

The performance-based Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7 (EX300) tests to determine if your knowledge, skill, and ability meet those required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat® Enterprise Linux® systems. Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA®) certification is required to earn RHCE® certification.

This exam and the exam objectives provided here are based on the Red  Hat Enterprise Linux 7 version of the exam.

An RHCE certification is earned by a Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) who has demonstrated the knowledge, skill, and ability required of a senior system administrator responsible for Red Hat Enterprise Linux systems.

Latest updates RedHat EX300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

SIMULATION

Configure the nfs server, share the /common directory to domain30.example.com, and allow client to have the root user

right when access as a root user.

A. explanation

Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here Webpage content modification. Implement website for http://serverX.example.com/owndir Create a
directory named as “owndir” under the document root of webserver Download
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/rhce/restrict.html Rename the file into ondex.html The content of the owndir
should be visible to everyone browsing from your local system but should not be accessible from other location
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure selinux.
Configure your systems that should be running in Enforcing.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q3

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
There were two systems: system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place system2, some
configuration here SMTP Configuration. Configure the SMTP mail service on serverX and desktopX which relay the mail
only from local system through station.network0.example.com, all outgoing mail have their sender domain as
example.com. Ensure that mail should not store locally. Verify the mail server is working by sending mail to a natasha
user. Check the mail on both serverX and desktopX with the below URL http://station.network0.example.com/system1
http://station.network0.example.com/system2
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q4

QUESTION 5
SIMULATION
You are working as an Administrator. There is a common data shared (/data) from 192.168.0.254 to all users in your
local LAN. When user\\’s system start, shared data should automatically mount on /common directory.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
To automatically mount at boot time, we use the /etc/fstab file. Because /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit file reads and mounts all file
system specified in /etc/fstab. To mount Network Sharing Files also use the /etc/fstab but filesystem is nfs. lead4pass ex300 exam question q5

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Script1.
Create a script on serverX called /root/random with the following details
When run as /root/random postconf, should bring the output as “postroll”
When run as /root/random postroll, should bring the output as “postconf”
When run with any other argument or without argument, should bring any other argument or without argument, should
bring the stderr as “/root/random postconf|postroll”
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q6

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account: lead4pass ex300 exam question q7

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure NFS service
Configure the NFS service on the system1, as required:
1.
Share the directory /public in read only way, just can be accessed by systems in domain11.example.com at the same
time.
2.
Share the directory /protected in rad and write way, Kerberos security encryption required, you can use the key
provided by the following URL: http://host.domain11.example.com/materials/nfs_server.keytab
3.
The directory /protected should contain the sub directory named project and the owner name is deepak;
4.
User deepak can access /protected/project in read and write ways
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A
system1:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8 lead4pass ex300 exam question q8

SIMULATION
Download file from http://ip/dir/restircted.html, and the local user harry can access it by
http://station.domain30.example.com/restircted.html, and cannot be accessed by t3gg.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10
The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0
Your system is a member of DNS domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are
all in subnet 172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account: lead4pass ex300 exam question q9

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be
able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test using
virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link:
http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score.
You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be accessed by service domain my133t.org,
systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems of these subnets also belong to my
133t.org
domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient
identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Database Query
Use database Contacts on the system1, and use the corresponding SQL to search and answer the following questions:
1.
What\\’s the person name whose password is solicitous?
2.
How many people\\’s names are John and live is Shanghai at the same time?
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
SIMULATION
RHCE Test Configuration Instructions
Information for the two systems you will use in test is the following:
system1.group3.example.com: is one of the main sever. system2.group3.example.com: mainly used as a client.
Password for both of the two systems is atenorth
System\\’s IP is provided by DHCP, you can regard it as normal, or you can reset to Static IP in accordance with the
following requirements:
system1.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.5
system2.group3.example.com: 172.24.3.10 The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Your system is a member of DNS
domain group3.example.com. All systems in DNS domain group3.example.com are all in subnet
172.24.3.0/255.255.255.0, the same all systems in this subnet are also in group3.example.com, unless
specialized, all network services required to be configured can be accessed by systems of domain group3.
host.group3.example.com provides a centralized authentication service domain
GROUP3.EXAMPLE.COM, both system1 and system2 have already been pre-configured to be the client for this
domain, this domain provides the following user account: lead4pass ex300 exam question q10

Firewall is enabled by default, you can turn it off when deemed appropriate, other settings about firewall may be in
separate requirements.
Your system will be restarted before scoring, so please ensure that all modifications and service configurations you
made still can be operated after the restart without manual intervention, virtual machine instances of all examinations
must be able to enter the correct multi-user level after restart without manual assistance, it will be scored zero if the test
using virtual machine system cannot be restarted or be properly restarted.
Corresponding distribution packages for the testing using operating system Red Hat Enterprise Linux version can be
found in the following link: http://server1.group3.example.com/rhel
Part of the requirements include host security, ensure your host security limit does not prevent the request to allow the
host and network, although you correctly configured the network service but would have to allow the host or network is
blocked, this also does not score. You will notice that some requirements which clearly do not allow services be
accessed by service domain my133t.org, systems of this domain are in subnet 172.25.1.0/252.255.255.0, and systems
of these subnets also belong to my 133t.org domain.
PS: Notice that some test questions may depend on other exam questions, for example, you might be asked to perform
a series of restrictions on a user, but this user creation may be required in other questions. For convenient identification,
each exam question has some radio buttons to help you identify which questions you have already completed or not
completed. Certainly, you do not need to care these buttons if you don\\’t need them.
Configure IPV6 Address
Configure interface eth0 on your test system, using the following IPV6 addresses: 1) The address of system1 should be
2003:ac18::305/64
(2)
The address of system2 should be 2003:ac18::30a/64
(3)
Both two systems must be able to communicate with systems in network 2003:ac18/64 (4) The address must still take
effect after restart
(5)
Both two systems must maintain the current Ipv4 address and can communicate
A.
explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q10-1

QUESTION 11 lead4pass ex300 exam question q11

SIMULATION
There were two systems:
system1, main system on which most of the configuration take place
system2, some configuration here
Configure NFS mount.
Mount /nfsshare directory on desktopX under /public directory persistently at system boot time.
Mount /nfssecure/protected with krb5p secured share on desktopX beneath /secure/protected provided with keytab
http://station.network0.example.com/pub/
keytabs/desktopX.keytab
The user harry is able to write files on /secure directory
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-1

Verification from DesktopX:

lead4pass ex300 exam question q11-2

QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
Configure the web server, which can be accessed by http://station.domain30.example.com.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q12

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
A. explanation
Correct Answer: A lead4pass ex300 exam question q13

Related EX300 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	RedHat	lead4pass	Lead4Pass Total Questions
RedHat RHCE certification	lead4pass EX300 dumps pdf	lead4pass EX300 youtube	Red Hat Certified Engineer (RHCE) exam for Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7	https://www.leads4pass.com/ex300.html	88 Q&A

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Posted by admin on May 13, 2020 in CompTIA, CompTIA CASP

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)：https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

About the Exam

The CASP+ certification validates advanced-level competency in risk management, enterprise security operations and architecture, research and collaboration, and integration of enterprise security. The CASP+ exam covers the following:

Enterprise security domain expanded to include operations and architecture concepts, techniques and requirements
More emphasis on analyzing risk through interpreting trend data and anticipating cyberdefense needs to meet business goals
Expanding security control topics to include mobile and small-form-factor devices, as well as software vulnerability
Broader coverage of integrating cloud and virtualization technologies into a secure enterprise architecture
Inclusion of implementing cryptographic techniques, such as blockchain, cryptocurrency and mobile device encryption

Latest updates CompTIA CAS-003 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A security consultant is evaluating forms which will be used on a company website. Which of the following techniques or
terms is MOST effective at preventing malicious individuals from successfully exploiting programming flaws in the
website?
A. Anti-spam software
B. Application sandboxing
C. Data loss prevention
D. Input validation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user\\’s provided input to a web page
login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and
that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web
server log:
10.235.62.11 ?- [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET /site/script.php?user=admiand;pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200
5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented
by the developer?
A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and
the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the
browser side.
C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input
validation.
D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should
ensure strong passwords are enforced.
Correct Answer: C
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code `1=1\\’ will always provide a value of true.
This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.
In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It
is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements
are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must
exploit a security vulnerability in an application\\’s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for
string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly
executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL
database.

QUESTION 3
An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP
tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and
sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely
reason for the need to sanitize the client data?
A. Data aggregation
B. Data sovereignty
C. Data isolation
D. Data volume
E. Data analytics
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A system owner has requested support from data owners to evaluate options for the disposal of equipment containing
sensitive data. Regulatory requirements state the data must be rendered unrecoverable via logical means or physically
destroyed.
Which of the following factors is the regulation intended to address?
A. Sovereignty
B. E-waste
C. Remanence
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
IT staff within a company often conduct remote desktop sharing sessions with vendors to troubleshoot vendor product-
related issues. Drag and drop the following security controls to match the associated security concern. Options may be
used once or not at all.
Select and Place: lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass cas-003 exam question q5-1

Vendor may accidentally or maliciously make changes to the IT system – Allow view-only access.
With view-only access, the third party can view the desktop but cannot interact with it. In other words, they cannot
control the keyboard or mouse to make any changes.
Desktop sharing traffic may be intercepted by network attackers – Use SSL for remote sessions.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) encrypts data in transit between computers. If an attacker intercepted the traffic, the data
would be encrypted and therefore unreadable to the attacker.
No guarantees that shoulder surfing attacks are not occurring at the vendor – Identified control gap.
Shoulder surfing is where someone else gains information by looking at your computer screen. This should be identified
as a risk. A control gap occurs when there are either insufficient or no actions taken to avoid or mitigate a significant
risk.
Vendor may inadvertently see confidential material from the company such as email and IMs – Limit desktop session to
certain windows.
The easiest way to prevent a third party from viewing your emails and IMs is to close the email and IM application
windows for the duration of the desktop sharing session.

QUESTION 6
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application.
The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application
designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance
overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select
TWO).
A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode
C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
D. Use AES with cipher text padding
E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
F. Use AES in Counter mode
Correct Answer: EF
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be
random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property
whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between
segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived
internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as
stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be
derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is
the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by
encrypting successive values of a “counter”. The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is
guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.

QUESTION 7
Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base. This purchase includes
several offices in different countries. To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee
activity may be monitored and reviewed. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this
practice?
A. The excessive time it will take to merge the company\\’s information systems.
B. Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements.
C. Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews.
D. The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user on a virtual machine downloads a large file using a popular peer-to-peer torrent program. The user is unable to
execute the program on their VM. A security administrator scans the VM and detects a virus in the program. The
administrator reviews the hypervisor logs and correlates several access attempts to the time of execution of the virus.
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior?
A. The hypervisor host does not have hardware acceleration enabled and does not allow DEP.
B. The virus scanner on the VM changes file extensions of all programs downloaded via P2P to prevent execution.
C. The virtual machine is configured to require administrator rights to execute all programs.
D. The virus is trying to access a virtual device which the hypervisor is configured to restrict.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
During an incident involving the company main database, a team of forensics experts is hired to respond to the breach.
The team is in charge of collecting forensics evidence from the company\\’s database server. Which of the following is
the correct order in which the forensics team should engage?
A. Notify senior management, secure the scene, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, implement chain
of custody, and analyze original media.
B. Take inventory, secure the scene, capture RAM, capture hard drive, implement chain of custody, document, and
analyze the data.
C. Implement chain of custody, take inventory, secure the scene, capture volatile and non-volatile storage, and
document the findings.
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D. Secure the scene, take inventory, capture volatile storage, capture non-volatile storage, document, and implement
chain of custody.
Correct Answer: D
The scene has to be secured first to prevent contamination. Once a forensic copy has been created, an analyst will
begin the process of moving from most volatile to least volatile information. The chain of custody helps to protect the
integrity and reliability of the evidence by keeping an evidence log that shows all access to evidence, from collection to
appearance in court.

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing company is having issues with unauthorized access and modification of the controls operating the
production equipment. A communication requirement is to allow the free flow of data between all network segments at
the site. Which of the following BEST remediates the issue?
A. Implement SCADA security measures.
B. Implement NIPS to prevent the unauthorized activity.
C. Implement an AAA solution.
D. Implement a firewall to restrict access to only a single management station.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security architect is seeking to outsource company server resources to a commercial cloud service provider. The
provider under consideration has a reputation for poorly controlling physical access to datacenters and has been the
victim of multiple social engineering attacks. The service provider regularly assigns VMs from multiple clients to the
same physical resources. When conducting the final risk assessment which of the following should the security architect
take into consideration?
A. The ability to implement user training programs for the purpose of educating internal staff about the dangers of social
engineering.
B. The cost of resources required to relocate services in the event of resource exhaustion on a particular VM.
C. The likelihood a malicious user will obtain proprietary information by gaining local access to the hypervisor platform.
D. Annual loss expectancy resulting from social engineering attacks against the cloud service provider affecting
corporate network infrastructure.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Company A is purchasing Company B, and will import all of Company B\\’s users into its authentication system.
Company A uses 802.1x with a RADIUS server, while Company B uses a captive SSL portal with an LDAP backend.
Which of the following is the BEST way to integrate these two networks?
A. Enable RADIUS and end point security on Company B\\’s network devices.
B. Enable LDAP authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
C. Enable LDAP/TLS authentication on Company A\\’s network devices.
D. Enable 802.1x on Company B\\’s network devices.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A large hospital has implemented BYOD to allow doctors and specialists the ability to access patient medical records on
their tablets. The doctors and specialists access patient records over the hospital\\’s guest WiFi network which is
isolated from the internal network with appropriate security controls. The patient records management system can be
accessed from the guest network and require two factor authentication. Using a remote desktop type interface, the
doctors and specialists can interact with the hospital\\’s system. Cut and paste and printing functions are disabled to
prevent the copying of data to BYOD devices. Which of the following are of MOST concern? (Select TWO).
A. Privacy could be compromised as patient records can be viewed in uncontrolled areas.
B. Device encryption has not been enabled and will result in a greater likelihood of data loss.
C. The guest WiFi may be exploited allowing non-authorized individuals access to confidential patient data.
D. Malware may be on BYOD devices which can extract data via key logging and screen scrapes.
E. Remote wiping of devices should be enabled to ensure any lost device is rendered inoperable.
Correct Answer: AD
Privacy could be compromised because patient records can be from a doctor\\’s personal device. This can then be
shown to persons not authorized to view this information. Similarly, the doctor\\’s personal device could have malware
on it.

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[Latest Questions] Latest HP HPE0-J74 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

Posted by admin on May 13, 2020 in HP

2018 latest high quality HP HPE0-J74 dumps exam training materials and study guide, the best HP HPE0-J74 exam practice questions and answers online free update. 100% success and guarantee to pass HP HPE0-J74 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
Which HPE StoreVirtual features enable substantially increased effciency? (Select two.)
A. space reclamation
B. iSCSI storage clustering
C. storage federation
D. reservation-less thin provisioning
E. network RAID
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which functions are provided by server-based storage virtualization? (Select two.)
A. Host path failover
B. Volume sharing among multiple servers
C. Performance load balancing of SAN connections
D. Intelligent LUN expansion and reducti n
E. Thin provisioning
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are using HPE Library and Tape Tools to document serial number and firmware versions of your customers tape
infrastructure. What do you use to perform this?
A. diagnostics option
B. device into option
C. support ticket option
D. failure analysis option
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer is opening a new remote office They have servers containing internal storage that they plan to virtualize
They currently own existing HPE Data Protector licenses Which data protection solution would be ideal for them?
A. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
B. HPE StoreEasy 1000 C. HPE StoreOnce VSA
D. HPE StoreEver LTO-7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which RAID level uses double parity Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which element of HPE\’s BURA storage portfolio provides deduplicated backup disk storage?
A. HPE 3PAR StoreServ
B. HPE StoreEver
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE Store All
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What does the HPE StoreVirtual solution provide?
A. scale-out storage
B. SAN. NAS and object storage
C. file level storage
D. scale-up storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which service is used in a NAS environment, but not a SAN environment?
A. block access services
B. direct access services
C. object access services D. file access services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ virtualization technology provides DHAM cache extension to reduce application response ti
for read intensive I/O workloads?
A. Priority Optimization
B. Adaptive Flash Cache
C. Persistent Cache
D. Rapid Provisioning
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which Fibre Channel SAN topology supports automatic path rerouting it all ISLs between two switches fail?
A. Flat SAN
B. single cote-edge
C. cascade
D. mesh
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A customer has a number of server blades in a BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure and an HP D2220sb Storage Blade, and
wants to implement a small test and development iSCSI SAN. What can provide this functionality?
A. Windows Storage Server
B. VMware ESXi
C. HPE StoreVirtual VSA
D. HPE StoreOnce VSA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under the HPE Converged Storage strategy, which type of primary storage is provided through NAS solutions?
A. sequential
B. object
C. block D. file
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which component performs the iSCSI encapsulation process in an iSCSI SAN environment when not using a TCP/IP
Offload Engine (TOE) card?
A. network switch
B. softwareinitiator
C. network interface card
D. GBIC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true about thin provisioning?
A. It stores frequently accessed files in a local cache to reduce the consumed storage space.
B. It allows allocation of physical storage resources only after they are consumed by an application.
C. It removes allocated. Out unused space with minimal performance impact.
D. It uses a real-ti I/O engine to intelligently position data on the most appropriate tier of storage.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which operating systems support space reclamation? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2012
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 SP2
C. VMware vSphere (ESXi) 5.x
D. Ubuntu 12 x
E. SLES 9 x
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which benefits are enabled by using the HPE StoreVirtual DSM for Microsoft MPIO? {Select two.)
A. synchronous streaming replication between HPE StoreVirtual nodes
B. automatic creation of an I/O pain to each storage system in the cluster on which the volume resides C. Network RAID 10 use between multi-site clusters tor Windows servers
D. improved architecture over native MPIO solutions
E. enhanced backup capabilites of HPE StoreVirtual nodes
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Your customer is considering moving their storage from HPE ProLiant Servers with direct attached HPE D3700 storage
shelves, to HPE StoreVirtual VSA, You
want to demonstrate the management console to the customer.
Which console should you use?
A. CMC
B. SMU
C. SSMC
D. IMC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your customer requested a Network Attached Storage (NAS) solution that allows Microsoft Windows users to continue
working uninterrupted during hardware failures Which HPEStore Easy functionality supports transparent failover?
A. SMB V3
B. InstantOn
C. Data Guarding
D. Peer Motion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which HPE primary production storage solution is targeted to the small and mid-sized business markets?
A. HPE StoreVirtual
B. HPE StoreAll
C. HPE StoreOnce
D. HPE StoreEver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20

What are benefits of using the NinjaProtected Tool? (Select two.)
A. identifies the agents that the solution needs
B. identifies potential deduplication-driven benefits
C. measures the performance of transactions
D. assists in finding opportunities for cost reductions
E. simplifies the number of licenses required
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
What are hardware components of a Fibre Channel SAN fabric implementation? (Select two.)
A. server
B. enclosure
C. SFP+ transceivers
D. host bus adapter
E. array controller
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
A customer has the following requirements for a new storage solution for the company\’s 4-node HPE ProLiant DL380
Gen9 SQL Cluster: ?fully redundant SAS connectivity ?dual controller architecture ?mixed drive support ?4 pons per
controller ?SSD drive support Which storage solution meets the customer requirements?
A. HPE 3PAR 8200
B. HPE MSA 2040
C. HPE MSA 1040
D. HPE D3700
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What is the term for the maximum allowable period for a business to be without a specific application should a disaster
occur?
A. Service Level Objective
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Recovery Point Objective D. Recovery Time Objective
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A customer is experiencing rapid data growth and requires more backup data to be available online. Which technology
could benefit the customer?
A. deduplication
B. wide striping
C. snapshots
D. tiering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which software is used to assign or zone D6000 drive bays directly to an HPE BladeSystem server bay?
A. Virtual SAS Manager (VSM)
B. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
C. Onboard Administrator (OA)
D. Array configuration utility (ACU)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which networking transport protocol is used in a NAS environment?
A. TCP
B. FCIP
C. Ethernet
D. Token Ring
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which HPE management tool provides a single integrated management environment with powerful search capabilities
and an open architecture?
A. HPE Insight Remote Support
B. HPE Systems Insight Manager
C. HPE OneView D. HPE SUM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which benefit does dual-domain offer over dual-path SAS?
A. Dual-path SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HIBA) failure.
B. Dual-domain SAS implementations provide some lower cost solutions that cover cable failure.
C. Dual-path SAS implementations provide full redundancy of a SAS solution.
D. Dual-domain SAS implementations make it possible to tolerate host bus adapter (HBA) failure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A large SMB customer requests a storage solution in which downtime is not an option. What is the requirement?
A. RPO must be zero.
B. RPO must be very low.
C. RTO must be very low.
D. RTO must be zero.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which device typically has a SCSi ID of?
A. Narrow SCSi tape
B. SCSi host adapter
C. Bootable Hard Drive
D. First device
Correct Answer: B

HP HPE ATP – Storage Solutions V2 is omnipresent all around the world, and the HP HPE0-J74 business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies.

[2020.4] Microsoft AZ-301 exam exercise questions and the latest updates AZ-301 dumps

Posted by admin on April 20, 2020 in azure az 301 dumps, azure az-301, azure az-301 pdf, azure az-301 sample questions, azure az-301 study guide, Microsoft, microsoft az-301 dumps, microsoft az-301 practice test, microsoft az-301 study guide, microsoft azure az-301, Microsoft Azure Exam certification 2020

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Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-301

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure,
scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting,
and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient
in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Skills measured

A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, AZ-304, WILL BE AVAILABLE ON OR AROUND JUNE 29, 2020. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on or around September 30, 2020. Please download the skills measured document below to see what will be changing.
Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
Design for identity and security (20-25%)
Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft AZ-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You plan to import data from your on-premises environment into Azure. The data is shown in the following table. braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1

What should you recommend using to migrate the data? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct data
sources. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1-1

Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q1-2

QUESTION 2
You have a standard Load balancer configured to support three virtual machines on the same subnet.
You need to recommend a solution to notify administrators when the load balancer fails.
Which metrics should you recommend using to test the load balancer? To answer, drag the appropriate metrics to the
correct conditions. Each metric may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place: braindump4it az-301 exam questions q2

QUESTION 3
You are migrating an on-premises application to Azure. One component of the application is a legacy Windows native
executable that performs image processing.
The image processing application must run every hour. During times that the image processing application is not
running, it should not be consuming any Azure compute resources.
You need to ensure that the image processing application runs correctly every hour.
Solution: Create an Azure Batch application that runs the image processing application every hour.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use an Azure Logic Apps, which helps you automate workflows that run on a schedule.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/tutorial-build-schedule-recurring-logic-app-workflow

QUESTION 4
You are building an application that will run in a virtual machine (VM). The application will use Managed Service Identity
(MSI).
The application uses Azure Key Vault, Azure SQL Database, and Azure Cosmos DB.
You need to ensure the application can use secure credentials to access these services.
Which authorization methods should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
A company has custom ASP.NET and Java applications that run on old versions of Windows and Linux. The company
plans to place applications in containers.
You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The
solution must support storage orchestration.
Solution: You deploy each application to an Azure Web App that has container support.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are designing software as a service (SaaS) application that will enable the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users to
create and publish surveys. The SaaS application will have a front-end web app and a back-end web API. The web app
will rely on the web API to handle updates to customer surveys.
You need to design an authorization flow for the SaaS application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
To access the back-end web API, the web app must authenticate by using OAuth 2 bearer tokens.
The web app must authenticate by using the identities of individual users.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 7
Your company has an on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and an established Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD) environment.
Your company would like users to be automatically signed in to cloud apps when they are on their corporate desktops
that are connected to the corporate network.
You need to enable single sign-on (SSO) for company users.
Solution: Install and configure an Azure AD Connect server to use password hash synchronization and select the
Enable single sign-on option.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive
the workload that performs financial risk modeling.
You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch.
You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Basic A-series virtual machines
B. low-priority virtual machines
C. burstable virtual machines
D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

QUESTION 9
You are developing a web application that provides streaming video to users. You configure the application to use
continuous integration and deployment.
The app must be highly available and provide a continuous streaming experience for users.
You need to recommend a solution that allows the application to store data in a geographical location that is closest to
the user.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure App Service Web Apps
B. Azure App Service Isolated
C. Azure Redis Cache
D. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: D
Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) is a global CDN solution for delivering high-bandwidth content. It can be hosted
in Azure or any other location. With Azure CDN, you can cache static objects loaded from Azure Blob storage, a web
application, or any publicly accessible web server, by using the closest point of presence (POP) server. Azure CDN can
also accelerate dynamic content, which cannot be cached, by leveraging various network and routing optimizations.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-in/azure/cdn/

QUESTION 10
Your company has 20 web APIs that were developed in-house.
The company is developing 10 web apps that will use web APIs. The web apps and the APIs are registered in the
company\\’s Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The web APIs are published by using Azure API Management.
You need to recommend a solution to block unauthorized requests originating from the web apps from reaching the web
APIs. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Use Azure AD-generated claims.
Minimize configuration and management effort.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: braindump4it az-301 exam questions q10

QUESTION 11
You have 20 Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016 based on a custom virtual machine image. Each
virtual machine an instance of a VSS-capable app that was developed in-house. Each instance is accessed by the public
endpoint. Each instance separate database. The average database size is 200 GB.
You need to design a disaster recovery solution for individual instances.
Provide a recovery objective time object (RTO] of six hours.
Provide a recovery point objective (RPO) at eight hours.
Support recovery to a different Azure region.
Support VSS- based backups.
Minimize VSS-based backups.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE:
Each correct selection is worth one point
Hot Area: braindump4it az-301 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

braindump4it az-301 exam questions q11-1

QUESTION 12
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that is integrated with Microsoft
Office 365 and an Azure subscription.
Contoso has an on-premises identity infrastructure. The infrastructure includes servers that run Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS), Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), Azure AD Connect, and Microsoft Identity Manager
(MIM).
Contoso has a partnership with a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam has an Active Directory forest and an Office
365 tenant. Fabrikam has the same on-premises identity infrastructure as Contoso.
A team of 10 developers from Fabrikam will work on an Azure solution that will be hosted in the Azure subscription of
Contoso. The developers must be added to the Contributor role for a resource in the Contoso subscription.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that Contoso can assign the role to the 10 Fabrikam developers. The
solution must ensure that the Fabrikam developers use their existing credentials to access resources.
What should you recommend?
A. Configure a forest trust between the on-premises Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.
B. Configure an organization relationship between the Office 365 tenants of Fabrikam and Contoso.
C. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, enable Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS). Create a one-way forest trust that uses selective authentication between the Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.
D. In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, create guest accounts for the Fabrikam developers.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/role-assignments-external-users

QUESTION 13
You have an on-premises network and an Azure subscription. The on-premises network has several branch offices.
A branch office in Toronto contains a virtual machine named VM1 that is configured as a file server. Users access the
shared files on VM1 from all the offices.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can access the shares files as quickly as possible if the
Toronto branch office is inaccessible.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a Recovery Services vault and Azure Backup
B. an Azure file share and Azure File Sync
C. Azure blob containers and Azure File Sync
D. a Recovery Services vault and Windows Server Backup
Correct Answer: B
Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization\\’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility,
performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick
cache of your
Azure file share.
You need an Azure file share in the same region that you want to deploy Azure File Sync.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Backups would be a slower solution.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

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Easily pass the 200-310 exam, share the effective Cisco 200-310 Learning Guide for free

Posted by admin on February 29, 2020 in CCDA, Cisco

How can I get a valid 200-310 study guide for passing the 200-310 exam? Braindump4it shares the latest and effective Cisco 200-310 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 200-310 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 200-310 exam dumps selection: https://www.leads4pass.com/200-310.html (660 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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^[PDF] Free Cisco 200-310 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1yvKv0TlXUY0gofovvmO1QUyk2uyuLnO-

200-310 desgn – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-310-desgn.html

This exam requires a foundation or apprentice knowledge of network design for the Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks.

Latest updates Cisco CCDA 200-310 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs

between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use the existing WAN.

Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?

A. VPLS

B. L2TPv3

C. OTV

D. AToM

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy

to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Secondary T1 WAN circuit

B. ISDN BRI

C. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet

D. DWDM l

E. POTS Line T1 WAN

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right.

Select and Place: lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-310 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts?
A. core
B. access
C. aggregation
D. distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls?
A. small
B. medium
C. large
D. extra large
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to increase uplink
utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding
new physical connections?
A. enable spanning-tree portfast
B. enable VSS at the distribution layer
C. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
D. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Applications
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Which STP feature allows an access port to bypass the learning and listening states?
A. Root Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. BPDU Guard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two considerations are important when designing the access layer? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. QoS services
C. routing between VLANs
D. HSRP implementation
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality calls?
A. G.711
B. G.718
C. G.722
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two.)
A. frame relay
B. MPLS
C. Metro Ethernet
D. GPRS
E. dial-up modem
F. 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC
Frame relay is old \\’shared\\’ technology today\\’s sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is an example of a fixed two-level hierarchical routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. static routes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option is one of the methods that Cisco routers and switches can use to share information between directly
connected devices on a regular basis?
A. NetFlow
B. ARP
C. NHRP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: D

Related 200-310 Popular Exam resources

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Cisco	lead4pass 200-310 dumps pdf	lead4pass 200-310 youtube	200-310 desgn – Cisco	https://www.leads4pass.com/200-310.html	660 Q&A
Cisco			200-901 DEVASC – Cisco	Cisco Certified DevNet Associate exam dumps	60 Q&A

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It’s not easy to pass the Cisco 200-310 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.leads4pass.com/200-310.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.

Cisco 210-065 exam questions, 210-065 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Posted by admin on October 25, 2019 in CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

“Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)” Exam 210-065. Here you can get the latest free Cisco 210-065 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

210-065 exam: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of and skills to implement various Cisco Video endpoints in converged Cisco video infrastructures. It also tests a candidate’s ability to implement and troubleshoot Cisco Unified Communication and Collaboration, TelePresence, and Digital Media Player in different Cisco business video solution architectures. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.leads4pass.com/210-065.html exam.

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Latest Cisco 210-065 pdf
Test your Cisco 210-065 exam level
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[PDF] Free Cisco 210-065 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1wb3l8cEpQOnjCZGvOv0u90AP29BjU2p4

210-060 CICD – Cisco：https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/civnd.html

Free Cisco 210-065 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. bursty
Correct Answer: CDEG

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to prepare a room for a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System installation. Which two
recommendations should the engineer follow? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid acoustic wall panels
B. Avoid high-contrast elements
C. Use earth tone paint colors
D. Avoid plants or decorations
E. Use glossy finishes
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/cts_3010/assembly_guide/3010_assembly_guide/3010_room_recommendations.pdf

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco DMS component is used for content recording?
A. Cisco Cast
B. Cisco TCS
C. Cisco DMM
D. Cisco DMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A video conference user that is connected via a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40 to a conference that is hosted on a
Cisco TelePresence MCU 5300 would like to switch the local layout view. Which two options describe how to switch the
local layout view without affecting the view of remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Administrator settings from the local touch control.
B. Use the Participant settings from the MCU 5300 web interface.
C. Use the Call settings from the remote control.
D. Use the Call Control settings from the codec web interface.
E. Use the Conference settings from the codec web interface.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/profile-series/tc6/administration_guide/profile_c60-c40_and_codec_c60-c40_administrator_guide_tc60.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which two fields must be configured for a Cisco TelePresence device to connect to a Phonebook source? (Choose
two.)
A. Phonebook Server > URL
B. Phonebook Server > Type
C. Phonebook Server > Provisioning
D. Phonebook Server > Phonebook
E. Phonebook Server > Host
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which three features does a Cisco TelePresence Content Server provide that a Cisco MCU cannot? (Choose three.)
A. conference bridge virtualization support
B. multiple conference layouts
C. resource optimization via conductor
D. 720p resolution at 60 fps
E. 1080p resolution at 60 fps
F. multiscreen immersive room endpoint support
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 7
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias > Template > Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > Template
C. Recording Alias > Media Server Configuration > H.323 > Template
D. Recording Alias > Workflow > Template > Media Server Configuration
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer
do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
Correct Answer: D lead4pass 210-065 exam question q8

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/mx-series/tc7/administration-guide/mx700-mx800-administrator-guide-tc72.pdf

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence Manager
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server
Correct Answer: AC
Features and Benefits
Benefits of Cisco TMS include:
Scalable provisioning: Cisco TMS can support rapid, large-scale deployments of up to 100,000 Cisco TelePresence
users, endpoints, and soft clients across disparate customer locations, including up to 5,000 direct-managed devices.
Centralized administration: Cisco TMS automates and simplifies the management of Cisco Telepresence meetings and
Cisco Telepresence infrastructure resources, reducing your total cost of ownership (TCO). Flexible scheduling: Cisco
TMS makes scheduling Cisco Telepresence meetings more accessible with a range of tools including a simple and
intuitive Smart Scheduler option, extensions for Microsoft Exchange integration, and advanced booking capabilities for
experienced administrators.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suite-tms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html

QUESTION 10
Which conference types can occur at any time without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created
as permanent conferences?
A. ad hoc conferences
B. auto-dialed participants
C. Multiway conferences
D. scheduled conferences
E. rendezvous conferences
Correct Answer: E
Rendezvous conferences (also called meet-me, static, or permanent conferences) require endpoints to dial in to a
predetermined multipoint resource. These multipoint resources are shared by a number of endpoints and are capable of
hosting many conferences at the same time. Because a dedicated device is used to host rendezvous conferences,
these conferences can have many more participants than multisite conferences (but not necessarily more than an ad-
hoc conference on a dedicated multipoint device).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09/confernc.html

QUESTION 11
Which two features are supported by the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server? (Choose two.)
A. motion detection
B. clustering
C. IP and analog cameras
D. MPEG-2 and MPEG-4 encoding
E. virtual matrix
Correct Answer: AC
Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server features include:
Flexibility to use a broad array of analog cameras and IP cameras
Simultaneous MJPEG and MPEG-4 encoding
Low-latency video with high-quality images
CIF, 2CIF, and 4CIF, up to 30 fps
PTZ and alarm inputs
Motion detection
Scalable deployment with multiple sites, cameras, users, and storage
Archives at different frame rate, duration, and location
Efficient redundant multi-site archiving that conserves bandwidth
Loop-and event-tagged video recording and event export (video clip) capabilities
Ability to connect to external storage
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/28981/cisco-video-surveillance-encoding-server

QUESTION 12
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for
TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber
registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence
capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in
the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which function does a Cisco TCS recording alias perform?
A. It links recorded media to a specified output location.
B. It provides a dialable alias that will trigger a TCS recording workflow.
C. It sends media to Cisco Medianet.
D. It provides an alias for the recorded filename.
Correct Answer: B
Understanding Recording Aliases
The Content Server records calls and can produce the resulting recordings in a range of formats and sizes for users to
watch or download. Creators of recordings can make recordings available to all or selected users. To make recordings,
creators must use a recording alias. A recording alias defines several properties, including ones related to dialing the
Content Server from an endpoint for the recording session; specifying recording outputs; and indicating viewing and
editing
permissions (see Recording Alias Properties).
There are two types of recording alias:
System recording aliases, which can be used by any user in the creator or site manager role.
Personal recording aliases, which have owners in the creator role. Owners can edit certain parts of their recording
aliases: recording settings, default recording information, and default recording permissions.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/tcs/5_0/administration/guide/tcs_5_0/recording_aliases.html#wp999176

Related 210-065 Popular Exam resources

title	pdf	youtube	Cisco	lead4pass	Lead4Pass Total Questions
Cisco CCNA Collaboration	lead4pass 210-065 dumps pdf	lead4pass 210-065 youtube	210-065 CIVND – Cisco	https://www.leads4pass.com/210-065.html	430 Q&A
Cisco CCNA Collaboration	lead4pass 210-060 dumps pdf	lead4pass 210-060 youtube	210-060 CICD – Cisco	https://www.leads4pass.com/210-060.html	414 Q&A

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Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from Cisco, Microsoft, CompTIA, IBM, EMC, etc. We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader! Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!

Summarize:

It’s not easy to pass the Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. Lead4pass provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.