CompTIA IT Exam Dumps

Where to get the latest CompTIA DA0-001 exam questions and answers

Posted by admin on November 29, 2024 in CompTIA, CompTIA Data+, DA0-001 exam, DA0-001 exam materials, DA0-001 exam questions, DA0-001 online practice

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CompTIA Data+ DA0-001 exam questions online practice test

From	Number of exam questions	Related
Pass4itsure	15 (Free)	CompTIA A+

Question 1:

Which of the ing is the correct ion for a tab-delimited spre file?

A. tap

B. tar

C. sv

D. az

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A tab-delimited spreadsheet file is a type of flat text file that uses tabs as delimiters to separate data values in a table. The file extension for a tab-delimited spreadsheet file is usually .tsv, which stands for tab-separated values.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

References: [Tab-separated values – Wikipedia], [What is a TSV File? | How to Open, Edit and Convert TSV Files]

Question 2:

Which of the following best describes the law of large numbers?

A. As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population.

B. As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population

C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.

D. When a sample size doubles. the sample is indicative of the whole population.

Correct Answer: B

The best answer is B.

As a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population. The law of large numbers, in probability and statistics, states that as a sample size grows, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population.

This is due to the sample being more representative of the population as it increases in size. The law of large numbers guarantees stable long-term results for the averages of some random events1 A.

As a sample size decreases, its standard deviation gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it confuses the concepts of standard deviation and mean. Standard deviation is a measure of how much the values in a data set vary from the mean, not how close the mean is to the population average.

Also, as a sample size decreases, its standard deviation tends to increase, not decrease, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.

C. As a sample size decreases, its mean gets closer to the average of the whole population is not correct, because it contradicts the law of large numbers. As a sample size decreases, its mean tends to deviate from the average of the whole population, because the sample becomes less representative of the population.

D. When a sample size doubles, the sample is indicative of the whole population is not correct, because it does not specify how close the sample mean is to the population average. Doubling the sample size does not necessarily make the sample indicative of the whole population, unless the sample size is large enough to begin with.

The law of large numbers does not state a specific number or proportion of samples that are indicative of the whole population, but rather describes how the sample mean approaches the population average as the sample size increases indefinitely.

Question 3:

A recurring event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations. A data analyst notices the event is being logged three hours earlier in one database than in the other database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The data analyst is not querying the databases correctly.

B. The databases are recording different events.

C. The databases are recording the event in different time zones.

D. The second database is logging incorrectly.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the issue is that the databases are recording the event in different time zones. A time zone is a region that observes a uniform standard time for legal, commercial, and social purposes. Different time zones have different offsets from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), which is the primary time standard by which the world regulates clocks and time.

For example, UTC-5 is five hours behind UTC, while UTC+3 is three hours ahead of UTC. If an event is being stored in two databases that are housed in different geographical locations with different time zones, it may appear that the event is being logged at different times, depending on how the databases handle the time zone conversion.

For example, if one database records the event in UTC-5 and another database records the event in UTC+3, then an event that occurs at 12:00 PM in UTC-5 will appear as 9:00 AM in UTC+3. The other options are not likely causes of the issue, as they are either unrelated or implausible.

The data analyst is not querying the databases incorrectly, as this would not affect the time stamps of the events.

The databases are not recording different events, as they are supposed to record the same recurring event. The second database is not logging incorrectly, as there is no evidence or reason to assume that.

Reference: [Time zone – Wikipedia]

Question 4:

Consider the following dataset which contains information about houses that are for sale:

Which of the following string manipulation commands will combine the address and region name columns to create a full address?

full_address————————- 85 Turner St, Northern Metropolitan 25 Bloomburg St, Northern Metropolitan 5 Charles St, Northern Metropolitan 40 Federation La, Northern Metropolitan 55a Park St, Northern Metropolitan

A. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

B. SELECT CONCAT(address, \’-\’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

C. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’ , \’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5

D. SELECT CONCAT(regionname, \’-\’ , address) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

Correct Answer: A

The correct answer is A:

SELECT CONCAT(address, \’ , \’ , regionname) AS full_address FROM melb LIMIT 5;

String manipulation (or string handling) is the process of changing, parsing, splicing, pasting, or analyzing strings. SQL is used for managing data in a relational database.

The CONCAT () function adds two or more strings together. Syntax CONCAT(stringl, string2,… string_n) Parameter Values Parameter Description stringl, string2, string_n Required. The strings to add together.

Question 5:

While reviewing survey data, an analyst notices respondents entered “Jan,” “January,” and “01” as responses for the month of January. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure data consistency?

A. Delete any of the responses that do not have “January” written out.

B. Replace any of the responses that have “01”.

C. Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”.

D. Sort any of the responses that say “Jan” and update them to “01”.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Filter on any of the responses that do not say “January” and update them to “January”. This is because filtering and updating are data cleansing techniques that can be used to ensure data consistency, which means that the data is uniform and follows a standard format.

By filtering on any of the responses that do not say “January” and updating them to “January”, the analyst can make sure that all the responses for the month of January are written in the same way. The other steps are not appropriate for ensuring data consistency.

Here is why:

Deleting any of the responses that do not have “January” written out would result in data loss, which means that some information would be missing from the data set. This could affect the accuracy and reliability of the analysis.

Replacing any of the responses that have “01” would not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “Jan” and “January”. This could cause confusion and errors in the analysis.

Sorting any of the responses that say “Jan” and updating them to “01” would also not solve the problem of data inconsistency, because there would still be two different ways of writing the month of January: “01” and “January”. This could also cause confusion and errors in the analysis.

Question 6:

Jhon is working on an ELT process that sources data from six different source systems.

Looking at the source data, he finds that data about the sample people exists in two of six systems.

What does he have to make sure he checks for in his ELT process?

Choose the best answer.

A. Duplicate Data.

B. Redundant Data.

C. Invalid Data.

D. Missing Data.

Correct Answer: C

Duplicate Data.

While invalid, redundant, or missing data are all valid concerns, data about people exists in two of the six systems. As such, Jhon needs to account for duplicate data issues.

Question 7:

Given the following customer and order tables:

Which of the following describes the number of rows and columns of data that would be present after performing an INNER JOIN of the tables?

A. Five rows, eight columns

B. Seven rows, eight columns

C. Eight rows, seven columns

D. Nine rows, five columns

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: This is because an INNER JOIN is a type of join that combines two tables based on a matching condition and returns only the rows that satisfy the condition. An INNER JOIN can be used to merge data from different tables that have a common column or a key, such as customer ID or order ID. To perform an INNER JOIN of the customer and order tables, we can use the following SQL statement:

This statement will select all the columns (*) from both tables and join them on the customer ID column, which is the common column between them. The result of this statement will be a new table that has seven rows and eight columns, as shown below:

The reason why there are seven rows and eight columns in the result table is because:

There are seven rows because there are six customers and six orders in the original tables, but only five customers have matching orders based on the customer ID column.

Therefore, only five rows will have data from both tables, while one row will have data only from the customer table (customer 5), and one row will have no data at all (null values).

There are eight columns because there are four columns in each of the original tables, and all of them are selected and joined in the result table.

Therefore, the result table will have four columns from the customer table (customer ID, first name, last name, and email) and four columns from the order table (order ID, order date, product, and quantity).

Question 8:

Different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database. Which of the following issues will MOST likely arise with this data? (Choose two.)

A. Data accuracy

B. Data constraints

C. Data attribute limitations

D. Data bias

E. Data consistency

F. Data manipulation

Correct Answer: AE

Data accuracy refers to the extent to which the data is correct, reliable, and free of errors. When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of human error, such as typos, misinterpretations, omissions, or duplications.

These errors can affect the quality and validity of the data and lead to incorrect or misleading analysis and decisions.

Data consistency refers to the extent to which the data is uniform and compatible across different sources, formats, and systems.

When different people manually type a series of handwritten surveys into an online database, there is a high chance of inconsistency, such as different spellings, abbreviations, formats, or standards. These inconsistencies can affect the integration and comparison of the data and lead to confusion or conflicts.

Therefore, to ensure data quality, it is important to have clear and consistent rules and procedures for data entry, validation, and verification. It is also advisable to use automated tools or methods to reduce human error and inconsistency.

Question 9:

A sales analyst needs to report how the sales team is performing to target. Which of the following files will be important in determining 2019 performance attainment?

A. 2018 goal data

B. 2018 actual revenue

C. 2019 goal data

D. 2019 commission plan

Correct Answer: C

Answer:

C. 2019 goal data To report how the sales team is performing to target, the sales analyst needs to compare the actual sales revenue with the expected or planned sales revenue for the same period. The 2019 goal data is the file that contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019, which is the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve. By comparing the 2019 goal data with the 2019 actual revenue, the sales analyst can calculate the performance attainment, which is the percentage of the goal that was met by the sales team.

Option A is incorrect, as 2018 goal data is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 goal data contains the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not the target that the sales team is aiming to achieve in 2019.

Option B is incorrect, as 2018 actual revenue is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2018 actual revenue contains the actual sales revenue for the year 2018, which is not comparable with the 2019 goal data or the 2019 actual revenue.

Option D is incorrect, as 2019 commission plan is not relevant for determining 2019 performance attainment. The 2019 commission plan contains the rules and rates for calculating and paying commissions to the sales team based on their performance attainment, but it does not contain the expected or planned sales revenue for the year 2019.

Question 10:

An analyst needs to join two tables of data together for analysis. All the names and cities in the first table should be joined with the corresponding ages in the second table, if applicable.

Which of the following is the correct join the analyst should complete. and how many total rows will be in one table?

A. INNER JOIN, two rows

B. LEFT JOIN. four rows

C. RIGHT JOIN. five rows

D. OUTER JOIN, seven rows

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The correct join the analyst should complete is B. LEFT JOIN, four rows. A LEFT JOIN is a type of SQL join that returns all the rows from the left table, and the matched rows from the right table. If there is no match, the right table will have null values. A LEFT JOIN is useful when we want to preserve the data from the left table, even if there is no corresponding data in the right table1 Using the example tables, a LEFT JOIN query would look like this:

SELECT t1.Name, t1.City, t2.Age FROM Table1 t1 LEFT JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.Name = t2.Name;

The result of this query would be:

Name City Age Jane Smith Detroit NULL John Smith Dallas 34 Candace Johnson Atlanta 45 Kyle Jacobs Chicago 39

As you can see, the query returns four rows, one for each name in Table1. The name John Smith appears twice in Table2, but only one of them is matched with the name in Table1. The name Jane Smith does not appear in Table2, so the age column has a null value for that row.

Question 11:

Which of the following are reasons to create and maintain a data dictionary? (Choose two.)

A. To improve data acquisition

B. To remember specifics about data fields

C. To specify user groups for databases

D. To provide continuity through personnel turnover

E. To confine breaches of PHI data

F. To reduce processing power requirements

Correct Answer: BD

A data dictionary is a collection of metadata that describes the data elements in a database or dataset. It can help improve data acquisition by providing information about the data sources, formats, quality, and usage. It can also help remember specifics about data fields, such as their names, definitions, types, sizes, and relationships.

Therefore, options B and D are correct.

Option A is incorrect because it is not a reason to create and maintain a data dictionary, but a benefit of doing so.

Option C is incorrect because specifying user groups for databases is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a database management system or a security policy.

Option E is incorrect because confining breaches of PHI data is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data protection or encryption system.

Option F is incorrect because reducing processing power requirements is not a function of a data dictionary, but a function of a data compression or optimization system.

Question 12:

Given the following:

Which of the following is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis?

A. Fill in the missing cost where it is null.

B. Separate the table into two tables and create a primary key

C. Replace the extended cost field with a calculated field.

D. Correct the dates so they have the same format.

Correct Answer: D

Correcting the dates so they have the same format is the most important thing for an analyst to do when transforming the table for a trend analysis. Trend analysis is a method of analyzing data over time to identify patterns, changes, or relationships. To perform a trend analysis, the data needs to have a consistent and comparable format, especially for the date or time variables.

In the example, the date purchased column has two different formats: YYYY-MM-DD and MM/DD/YYYY. This could cause errors or confusion when sorting, filtering, or plotting the data over time.

Therefore, the analyst should correct the dates so they have the same format, such as YYYY-MM-DD, which is a standard and unambiguous format.

Question 13:

Which of the following are reasons to conduct data cleansing? (Select two).

A. To perform web scraping

B. To track KPls

C. To improve accuracy

D. To review data sets

E. To increase the sample size

F. To calculate trends

Correct Answer: CF

Two reasons to conduct data cleansing are:

To improve accuracy:

Data cleansing helps to ensure that the data is correct, consistent, and reliable. This can improve the quality and validity of the analysis, as well as the decision-making and outcomes based on the data12 To calculate trends:

Data cleansing helps to remove or resolve any errors, outliers, or missing values that could distort or skew the data. This can help to identify and measure the patterns, changes, or relationships in the data over time13

Question 14:

Joseph is interpreting a left skewed distribution of test scores. Joe scored at the mean, Alfonso scored at the median, and gaby scored and the end of the tail.

Who had the highest score?

A. Joseph

B. Joe

C. Alfonso

D. Gaby

Correct Answer: C

Alfonso had the highest score. A left skewed distribution is a distribution where the tail is longer on the left side than on the right side, meaning that most of the values are clustered on the right side and there are some outliers on the left side.

In a left skewed distribution, the mean is less than the median, which is less than the mode.

Therefore, Joseph, who scored at the mean, had the lowest score, Gaby, who scored at the end of the tail, had the second lowest score, and Alfonso, who scored at the median, had the highest score.

Reference: Skewness – Statistics How To

Question 15:

Kelly wants to get feedback on the final draft of a strategic report that has taken her six months to develop.

What can she do to get prevent confusion as see seeks feedback before publishing the report?

Choose the best answer.

A. Distribute the report to the appropriate stakeholders via email.

B. Use a watermark to identify the report as a draft.

C. Show the report to her immediate supervisor.

D. Publish the report on an internally facing website.

Correct Answer: B

The best answer is to use a watermark to identify the report as a draft. A watermark is a faint image or text that appears behind the content of a document, indicating its status or ownership. By using a watermark, Kelly can clearly communicate that the report is not final and still subject to changes or feedback.

This can prevent confusion among the readers and avoid any misuse or misinterpretation of the report. The other options are not as effective as using a watermark, as they either do not indicate the status of the report or do not reach the appropriate stakeholders.

Distributing the report via email or publishing it on an internally facing website may not make it clear that the report is a draft and may cause confusion or errors. Showing the report to her immediate supervisor may not get enough feedback from other relevant stakeholders who may have different perspectives or insights.

Reference: How to Add a Watermark in Microsoft Word – Lifewire

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CompTIA CAS-004 Exam 2024 (CASP+)

Posted by admin on July 9, 2024 in CASP+ cas-004 dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam dumps, CASP+ cas-004 exam questions, CompTIA, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner, CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps

I checked a lot of information but no more free materials related to the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam in 2024.

Is it because there is no market for CASP+?

Or is everyone no longer willing to share the CASP+ exam?

According to my observation, more people go to landing sale sites to look for free content, and fewer and fewer people blog. Google has lowered the ranking of WordPress blogs, so everyone doesn’t know that there are still many good articles in blogs.

Table of contents:

What is the CASP+ Cybersecurity Exam?

How to pass the CASP+ CAS-004 exam?

CAS-004 exam questions

CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Requirements

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without experience?

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without a degree?

What can CompTIA CASP+ do?

How to Update CompTIA CASP+ 004 Exam Certificate?

What is the CASP+ Cybersecurity Exam?

The CASP+ network security exam is an advanced Network security certificate aimed at enterprise network security and for future security architects and senior security engineers.

There are many such certifications, such as GIAC, CISA, CISSP, CEH, GCIH, etc. It is recommended that you read “Top 10 Most Popular Cybersecurity Certifications“

How to pass the CASP+ CAS-004 exam?

There are many answers to this question. Some people say that to ensure a good mentality, the premise is that you have made the necessary preparations for the exam. My answer is not to magnify those small things too much. What you need to prepare for is to prepare for everything. Get the questions right and enhance your real-world experience through extensive simulation exercises, learn about each question type and answering methods, such as multiple-choice questions, multiple-choice questions, and drag-and-drop activities, as well as the ability to solve problems in a simulated environment.

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024

Number of exam questions	Share the number of exam questions online	Material Center	Certification project
600 Q&A	15 Q&A	Leads4Pass	CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

Question 1:

Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts partial responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?

A. laaS

B. SaaS

C. FaaS

D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.

The technician will define this threat as:

A. a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.

B. a zero-day attack.

C. an advanced persistent threat.

D. an on-path attack.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.internetsociety.org/deploy360/tls/basics/

Question 3:

Before a risk assessment inspection, the Chief Information Officer tasked the systems administrator with analyzing and reporting any configuration issues on the information systems and then verifying existing security settings. Which of the following would be BEST to use?

A. SCAP

B. CVSS

C. XCCDF

D. CMDB

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

An HVAC contractor requested network connectivity permission to remotely support/troubleshoot equipment issues at a company location. Currently, the company does not have a process that allows vendors remote access to the corporate network.

Which of the following solutions represents the BEST course of action to allow the contractor access?

A. Add the vendor\’s equipment to the existing network Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN

B. Give the vendor a standard desktop PC to attach the equipment to Give the vendor access through the standard corporate VPN

C. Establish a certification process for the vendor Allow certified vendors access to the VDI to monitor and maintain the HVAC equipment

D. Create a dedicated segment with no access to the corporate network Implement dedicated VPN hardware for vendor access

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

SIMULATION

A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:

The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.

The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen to port 4022.

The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a single workstation.

All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.

All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight days.

All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.

Cleartext services are not allowed.

All devices must be hardened when possible.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.

Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the PostgreSQL database via SSH.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-1

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-2

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-3

A. Check the answer in the explanation below.

B. PlaceHolder

C. PlaceHolder

D. PlaceHolder

Correct Answer: A

CompTIA CAS-004 exam questions 2024 q5-4

Question 6:

An organization is preparing to migrate its production environment systems from an on-premises environment to a cloud service. The lead security architect is concerned that the organization\’s current methods for addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud environment.

Which of the following BEST describes the reason why traditional methods of addressing risk may not be possible in the cloud?

A. Migrating operations assumes the acceptance of all risks.

B. Cloud providers are unable to avoid risk.

C. Specific risks cannot be transferred to the cloud provider.

D. Risks to data in the cloud cannot be mitigated.

Correct Answer: C

A makes no sense since the CSP isn’t the data owner

B: Cloud providers could avoid the risk via contract

C: Cloud migrations are always a shared risk responsibility but ultimately the data owner/user has the most risk because they have the most to lose.

D: You can mitigate risks with technical and administrative controls in both cloud and on-premises

Question 7:

A financial institution generates a list of newly created accounts and sensitive information daily. The financial institution then sends out a file containing thousands of lines of data. Which of the following would be the best way to reduce the risk of a malicious insider making changes to the file that could go undetected?

A. Write an SIEM rule that generates a critical alert when files are created on the application server.

B. Implement an FIM that automatically generates alerts when the file is accessed by IP addresses that are not associated with the application.

C. Create a script that compares the size of the file on an hourly basis and generates alerts when changes are identified.

D. Tune the rules on the host-based IDS for the application server to trigger automated alerts when the application server is accessed from the internet.

Correct Answer: B

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a technology that can detect changes in files, often used to safeguard critical data. Implementing an FIM solution that generates alerts for access by unauthorized IP addresses would ensure that any unauthorized modifications to the file can be detected and acted upon. This helps in mitigating the risk of insider threats, as it would alert to any changes not made through the expected application process.

Question 8:

A company with multiple locations has taken a cloud-only approach to its infrastructure The company does not have standard vendors or systems resulting in a mix of various solutions put in place by each location The Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure that the internal security team has visibility into all platforms Which of the following best meets this objective?

A. Security information and event management

B. Cloud security posture management

C. SNMFV2 monitoring and log aggregation

D. Managed detection and response services from a third-party

Correct Answer: A

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company\’s locations.

Question 9:

A security engineer at a company is designing a system to mitigate recent setbacks caused by competitors that are beating the company to market with new products. Several of the products incorporate propriety enhancements developed by the engineer\’s company. The network already includes a SEIM and a NIPS and requires 2FA for all user access. Which of the following systems should the engineer consider NEXT to mitigate the associated risks?

A. DLP

B. Mail gateway

C. Data flow enforcement

D. UTM

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A developer needs to implement PKI in an autonomous vehicle\’s software in the most efficient and labor-effective way possible. Which of the following will the developer MOST likely implement?

A. Certificate chain

B. Root CA

C. Certificate pinning

D. CRL

E. OCSP

Correct Answer: B

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle\’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed

and embedded in the vehicle\’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles

or infrastructure. Verified References:

https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

Question 11:

An e-commerce company is running a web server on-premises, and the resource utilization is usually less than 30%. During the last two holiday seasons, the server experienced performance issues because of too many connections, and several customers were not able to finalize purchase orders. The company is looking to change the server configuration to avoid this kind of performance issue.

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution?

A. Move the server to a cloud provider.

B. Change the operating system.

C. Buy a new server and create an active-active cluster.

D. Upgrade the server with a new one.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A security architect is implementing a SOAR solution in an organization\’s cloud production environment to support detection capabilities. Which of the following will be the most likely benefit?

A. Improved security operations center performance

B. Automated firewall log collection tasks

C. Optimized cloud resource utilization

D. Increased risk visibility

Correct Answer: A

SOAR solutions (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) are designed to help organizations efficiently manage security operations. They can automate the collection and analysis of security data, which improves the performance of a security operations center (SOC) by allowing the security team to focus on more strategic tasks and reduce response times to incidents.

Question 13:

A client is adding scope to a project. Which of the following processes should be used when requesting updates or corrections to the client\’s systems?

A. The implementation engineer requests direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer.

B. The change control board must review and approve a submission.

C. The information system security officer provides the systems engineer with the system updates.

D. The security engineer asks the project manager to review the updates for the client\’s system.

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Due to internal resource constraints, the management team has asked the principal security architect to recommend a solution that shifts most of the responsibility for application-level controls to the cloud provider. In the shared responsibility model, which of the following levels of service meets this requirement?

A. IaaS

B. SaaS

C. FaaS

D. PaaS

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?

A. Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.

B. Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.

C. Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.

D. Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.

Correct Answer: D

…

16th to 600th Questions	Free practice method
https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-004.html	PDF, VCE, PDF+VCE

CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Requirements

This is a clear official requirement, and it is also very important to master the exam details:

Exam code	CAS-004
Exam name	CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)
Length	165 minutes
Questions type	Multiple-choice and performance-based
Number of exam questions	Up to 90
Passing score:	Around 80%
Equivalent certifications:	Network+, Security+, CySA+, Cloud+, and PenTest+
Languages:	English, Japanese, and Thai
Testing provider:	Pearson VUE
Testing centers:	Online and in-person
Price:	$392

These data are collected and compiled through official information.

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without experience?

All say CASP+ has at least 10 years of IT management experience, including at least 5 years of practical technical security experience.

I only agree with half of it. First of all, there are no prerequisites for the CASP+ certification exam, which means that your strength determines everything. All the numbers are just a general overview, so if you have the strength to get the certification And if you can prove your strength, then the time and numbers are not important.

Can I get CompTIA CASP+ without a degree?

I said above that there are no prerequisites, anyone can take the CASP+ certification exam, as long as they have the ability.

Let me tell you a joke:

A person applied for a job, and the HR asked if he had any work experience. The applicant said that I had no experience, HR said that we need experienced people, and the applicant said that I don’t have a job, how can I gain experience.

But you can improve your exam experience through simulation exercises, obtain the CASP+ certificate, and then you can tell my jokes to HR.

What can CompTIA CASP+ do?

CASP+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. The updated CASP+ certification can help certify you in careers such as the following:

Security Architect
Security Engineer
Technical lead analyst
Application security engineer

Companies like the U.S. Army, Dell, Verizon, and Booz Allen Hamilton all look for CASP+ certification in hiring.

I searched for CASP+ on indeed.com using Los Angeles, CA as an example.

Search “Security Engineer”:

You only need to search according to the region you want and the job position you want to get the precise answer, and you can also know the specific salary.

How to Update CompTIA CASP+ 004 Exam Certificate?

You need to know that the guarantee period of any CompTIA certification is three years. To continue to ensure that the certification is valid, you can participate in the CE (Continuing Education) program to protect your vitality and new opportunities and challenges in this field and provide you with a lot of continuous improvement and development. Good effect. You must know that your CASP+ certification needs to accumulate at least 75 continuing education credits (CEU) within three years and upload it to your certification account to ensure that you automatically renew.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam preparation experience

Posted by admin on January 5, 2024 in CompTIA, CompTIA Security+, CompTIA Security+ 2024, sy0-701, sy0-701 2024, sy0-701 dumps, sy0-701 exam, sy0-701 exam 2027, SY0-701 exam preparation experience

I learned about this exam because I had a chat with the Manager in 2023, and he mentioned that I should take the most basic and “simple” exam of CompTIA—Security+.
Because they are all multiple-choice questions, 90 questions in 90 minutes, it is very simple in his eyes, especially compared to other advanced security certifications. There is no need to do a lab, set up an environment, or analyze cases, and it is very user-friendly. For students who have just graduated, it is also readily available.

Although I say this, since I took Cisco’s basic network course in college and passed the CCENT exam, I have almost forgotten the basic knowledge related to networks.
This Security+ covers network security-related topics based on network knowledge, such as common network attacks, protocols, encryption risk management, etc.
From 2022 to the first half of 2023, I was actively preparing for CCL and PTE, and it took me more than a year to have the energy to cope with CompTIA. Next, I will briefly record my preparation process. Some experiences are for reference only.

Security+ 601 or 701?

Since technology is changing with each passing day, the exam will also be updated to adapt to the trends of the times, just like the iPhone is released every year.

CompTIA stipulates that when a version is launched on the market, it will usually be withdrawn from the stage of history three years later. 601 was launched in 2020. It will officially announce its retirement in July 2024 and will not accept registration.

At the same time, his successor is 701. However, CompTIA will introduce successors to the market early to warm up, so 701 can already be taken in November 2023.

SY0-601 and SY0-701 Domains Compared

When I signed up, I was a little hesitant whether to apply for the latest 701 or the more mature 601.
Because the versions are different, the content involved is also different.

In general:

The new CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) addresses the latest cybersecurity trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high performance on the job. These skills include:

Assessing the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommending and implementing appropriate security solutions.
Monitoring and securing hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, Internet of Things (IoT), and operational technology (OT).
Operating with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.
Identifying, analyzing, and responding to security events and incidents.

And 20% of exam objectives were updated to include:

Current trends: The latest trends in threats, attacks, vulnerabilities, automation, zero trust, risk, IoT, OT, and cloud environments are emphasized, as well as communication, reporting, and teamwork.
Hybrid environments: The latest techniques for cybersecurity professionals working in hybrid environments that are located in the cloud and on-premises; cybersecurity professionals should be familiar with both worlds.

Let’s take a look at the differences between the 601 and 701 exam domains:

Let’s go through each SY0-701 domain and what each encompasses.

1. General Security Concepts (12%)

This domain dives into the foundational aspects of security, including the CIA triad of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It also introduces various types of security controls like preventive, deterrent, and corrective, and the Zero Trust architecture.

2. Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)

This domain focuses on identifying and understanding common threat actors and their motivations, such as nation-states and hacktivists. It also discusses various threat vectors like email, SMS, and vulnerable software.

3. Security Architecture (18%)

This domain centers on secure systems architecture, discussing data types, classifications, and methods to secure data. It also covers high availability considerations like load balancing and site considerations like geographic dispersion.

4. Security Operations (28%)

This is the most heavily weighted domain and covers a wide range of operational activities, including incident response and the importance of automation and orchestration in secure operations. It also discusses using various data sources like logs and vulnerability scans to support security investigations.

5. Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

This domain focuses on the governance aspects of security, summarizing elements of effective security governance like policies and standards. It also goes into risk management processes, strategies, and security awareness practices like phishing recognition and user training.

Exam Registration

I chose CompTIA Security+ 701.

The next step is to register. It is said that books cannot be read unless they are borrowed, so if you don’t pay and set a time for the exam, you won’t start preparing with all your heart. The scariest thing is not having a deadline, because I always feel like I have time, so I have to be ready before I sign up for the exam.

Realizing that I had delayed for several months, I resolutely clicked on the CompTIA official website to register in December 2023.

The steps for me to register for the exam were a bit detoured. I bought a voucher from the CompTIA official website and then went to Pearson Vue to arrange the exam. You can register directly with Pearson Vue, schedule the exam, and then pay.

The advantage of buying a voucher from the official website is that there are different combinations to choose from, such as training courses, simulation questions, e-books, and re-exams. If you just want to schedule the exam quickly, you can skip step 1 and go to step 2. Go to PearsonVUE to schedule the exam.

1. Go to CompTIA’s official website to buy the voucher

First, I went to the CompTIA official website in the exam area to purchase exam coupons: go to https://store.comptia.org/ to register – login

Then, select Certification Vouchers – check Security+, and you will see that there are currently two versions of Security+ to choose from, with the same price:

Then, enter the version you want to take, taking 701 as an example, click Details:

You will see that there are different combinations to choose from, each containing different products. Scroll down to see the specific information of each bundle. Here I chose the first one simply and rudely, because I felt that I should be able to pass it once without a Retake (the official website also provides training courses, but I have not used them, and I don’t know if they will be as lengthy as the official AWS training).

Then add to cart – pay. Remember, don’t forget to fill in the discount code for children’s shoes, as there is a 10% discount. How to get the discount code will be mentioned later!

After the payment is successful, you will receive an email stating that you have successfully purchased the voucher, and then you will receive the voucher code through another email. So the question is, I just bought a voucher for so long. When and where should I take the exam? How do I book a test?

Because many of these certificate exams are outsourced, you usually go to a Pearson VUE Test Center to take these exams. So, if you check your purchase record at this time, you will see that you have successfully purchased Security+, but you need to go to another place to arrange your exam.

Find your historical order, your voucher information will be displayed on it, then go to Pearson to confirm the exam time and location.

2. Go to PearsonVUE to schedule the exam

CompTIA Pearson vue registration: https://home.pearsonvue.com/Clients/CompTIA.aspx

Go to Pearson CompTIA homepage:

After successful registration, enter the homepage of Pearson CompTIA

All Step:

Select Exam: Security+
Choose the exam code. Generally, there will be only one, unless it is in a transitional period like Security+ 601. The test I took this time was SY0-701.
Currently, many exams provide two options: going to a test center (Test Center) and taking the test at home. However, I heard that there were too many reasons why personal computers could not be connected, network problems, system problems, etc., so I chose to go to the exam center without fear of trouble. Of course, this varies from person to person. If there is no test center near your home and you don’t want to spend time traveling, then the best option is to take the test at home.
Select language
The next step is to confirm the exam interface, make sure you select the one you want to take, and then the price will be displayed.
The next step is to find a nearby test center
Select your ideal date and time
The last step is to pay, enter a voucher code

Since you have already paid on the CompTIA official website, you only need to fill in the voucher code you just received from the CompTIA official website, and you can place an order successfully! Pearson will then email you the test center date and time.

Useful lessons for exam preparation

My preparation process mainly consisted of taking online classes and answering questions at the same time. I recommend this course called Mike Chapple on LinkedIn Learning.

https://www.linkedin.com/learning/topics/comptia

I have also watched some videos on YouTube, but many of them will complicate things. I can explain a concept to you for 20 to 30 minutes.

For candidates with some basic knowledge, it will be a waste of time. Mike’s courses simply and clearly explain to you the knowledge points involved in the exam and directly highlight the key points to remind you of the minefields in the exam, which is simply a blessing for exam fast-foodists like me.
However, this course is more suitable for candidates who have a certain foundation of network knowledge.

If you are a newbie, I recommend this course from CB Nuggets:

https://www.cbtnuggets.com/it-training/comptia/security-plus

Keith Barker, the lecturer in this class, is quite humorous and can stir up the atmosphere, so you are less likely to feel drowsy because the content is extremely boring. His course covers a comprehensive range of topics and explains them in detail, including some basic knowledge of Networking such as the OSI model, how to classify IPs, VLANs, etc.

The above are all paid courses that require you to subscribe (monthly or yearly). But LinkedIn will have a 1-month free trial, you can take advantage of it for “free sex” ~~~ At the same time, when you use LinkedIn, remember to download the exam coupon (a PDF document) from Mike Chapple’s course page, at Enter the discount code when registering to get a 10% discount!!!

Preparation materials (mainly exam practice)

Because I thought Mike Chapple spoke very well, I was naturally moved by him and bought his Last Minute Review ($9.99).

This PDF document condenses the important knowledge points involved in the entire exam into 13 pages. You can ask for confirmation when you don’t understand something when answering questions. It helps consolidate knowledge points during the preparation process and quickly browse and memorize before the exam. My feeling is that every word may be a test point.

Security+ Study Group

However, the Last Minute Review I bought at that time was not very comprehensive. I felt that some knowledge points were missing, so I also added a lot of things, which is equivalent to making a complete and unified arrangement.

At the same time, the most important thing is to use the existing question bank. There are many test bank websites for various certificates on the Internet, and some of them are paid. I mainly use Leads4Pass.
It has multiple purchase methods, namely PDF and VCE. I paid $45.99 to read the full version of Question 701.

https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-701.html

At present, it does not provide free test questions. I saw that other test codes provide free test questions, so I consulted customer service.
She told me that because sy0-701 is the latest exam item, free exam questions are not available for the time being.

The preparation process is a cycle of exam practice, summarizing mistakes, reviewing knowledge points – practice tests – summary – review. If you don’t understand anything, you can refer to Leads4Pass, and then watch the relevant course video explanations. If you are still not sure, just Google it.

…

Since time is limited and there is still a lot to express, I will write a separate article about the entire exam process next time! If you find it helpful, please bookmark and follow it! Thanks!

Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution Upgrade – New 200-201 dumps

Posted by admin on October 25, 2023 in 200-201, 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution, 200-201 dumps, 200-201 dumps exam questions, 200-201 exam questions, About 200-201 CBROPS, Cisco, Cisco 200-201 CBROPS dumps, Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate, CyberOps Associate 200-201 CBROPS exam material, CyberOps Associate 200-201 DUMPS, CyberOps Associate 200-201 PDF Download

New 200-201 dumps is the newly launched Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution reviewed and edited by the Lead4Pass CyberOps Associate certification team, it is real and effective!

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264 latest exam questions and answers have been released, which fully meet the actual exam conditions.

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How about Lead4Pass 200-201 dumps?
CyberOps Associate 200-201 Exam Overview
Is Cisco CyberOps worth IT?

Cisco 200-201 CBROPS Exam Solution Upgrade

Tips: The next update of the CyberOps Associate exam will be on November 21, 2023. The new exam will undergo dramatic changes. Candidates will receive the latest exam materials and meet new challenges!
But there will be no changes to the exams before then!

Practice new 200-201 dumps exam questions online

Lead4Pass 200-201 dumps have been verified in practice and are real and effective! And to dispel doubts, we share a copy of the latest exam questions and answers online! You can verify first before choosing!

From	Number of exam questions	Related exams
Lead4Pass	15	CCNA, CCNP

Question 1:

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A. Firepower

B. Email Security Appliance

C. Web Security Appliance

D. Stealthwatch

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A. cross-site scripting

B. man-in-the-middle

C. SQL injection

D. denial of service

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

A. privilege escalation

B. DDoS attack

C. phishing

D. man-in-the-middle

E. pharming

Correct Answer: CE

Question 4:

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

A. principle of least privilege

B. role-based access control

C. separation of duties

D. trusted computing base

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor. Which type of evidence is this?

A. best evidence

B. prima facie evidence

C. indirect evidence

D. physical evidence

Correct Answer: C

There are three general types of evidence:

–> Best evidence: can be presented in court in the original form (for example, an exact copy of a hard disk drive).

–> Corroborating evidence: tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. –> Indirect or circumstantial evidence: extrapolation to a conclusion of fact (such as fingerprints, DNA evidence, and so on).

Question 6:

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external perimeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified\’? (Choose two.)

A. SOX

B. PII

C. PHI

D. PCI

E. copyright

Correct Answer: BC

Question 7:

While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header. Which technology makes this behavior possible?

A. encapsulation

B. TOR

C. tunneling

D. NAT

Correct Answer: D

Network address translation (NAT) is a method of mapping an IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device.

Question 8:

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.

B. Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C. Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D. Use NTFS partition for log file containment

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

A. transaction data

B. statistical data

C. session data

D. full packet capture

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

What is the impact of encryption?

A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department\’s servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

A. Recovery

B. Detection

C. Eradication

D. Analysis

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/specialpublications/nist.sp.800-61r2.pdf

Question 12:

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

A. The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B. The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C. The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D. The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

Correct Answer: D

Question 13:

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation

C. separation of duties

D. needs to know the principle

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface. What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?

A. tagged protocols being used on the network

B. all firewall alerts and resulting mitigations

C. tagged ports being used on the network

D. all information and data within the datagram

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

A. SSL interception

B. packet header size

C. signature detection time

D. encryption

Correct Answer: D

…

CyberOps Associate 200-201 Exam Overview

Exam name:	Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Exam code:	200-201
Duration:	120 Minutes
Languages:	English
Price:	300$
Number of Questions:	95-105
Passing Score:	750-850 / 1000 Approx
Questions types:	Multiple choice (single and multiple answers) Drag-and-drop. Simulation. Fill-in-the-blank. Router and Switch Configuration Questions. Troubleshooting Questions. Testlet. Short Answer Questions.
Way to register:	In-person, Pearson VUE

Is Cisco CyberOps worth IT?

The value of Cisco CyberOps certification depends on many aspects, based on past experience:

If you are interested in a career in cybersecurity, the Cisco CyberOps certification is well worth it. It provides a foundation in cybersecurity concepts, skills, and practices, making it a good choice for those looking to enter the field.

Many employers look for certifications like Cisco CyberOps when hiring for cybersecurity roles, and having this certification can help you stand out among candidates

For individuals already working in IT, earning a Cisco CyberOps certification can provide opportunities for career advancement. It can qualify you to work as a security analyst, security operations center (SOC) analyst, or other cybersecurity positions

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All in all! The new 200-201 dumps fully meet the requirements of the CyberOps Associate certification exam and guarantee you a successful pass.

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700-765 dumps:Latest Cisco 700-765 ASASE exam material

Posted by admin on June 26, 2023 in 700-765, 700-765 ASASE exam material, 700-765 dumps, 700-765 exam material, 700-765 exam practice, 700-765 exam questions, 700-765 online practice, Cisco, Cisco 700-765 dumps, Cisco 700-765 dumps exam questions, Cisco 700-765 dumps PDF, latest updated Cisco 700-765 dumps, Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps

Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps have been released! Contains 92 latest exam questions and answers, which is the latest Cisco 700-765 ASASE exam material.

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Share some of the latest Lead4Pass 700-765 dumps exam questions online for free

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Last updated
Lead4Pass	15	Cisco	700-765 dumps

New Question 1:

What are two features of Advanced Malware Protection AMP? (Choose Two)

A. Automated Policy Management

B. File Retrospection and Trajectory

C. Dynamic Malware Analysis

D. Automatic Behavioral Authorization

E. Local Threat intelligence

Correct Answer: BC

New Question 2:

Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)

A. Mobile

B. Email

C. Cloud

D. Web

E. Data Center

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 3:

What is one of the key features of Cognitive Intelligence?

A. It enables greater threat intelligence with entity modeling

B. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering

C. It enables safe email usage with event analytics

D. Allows visibility into anonymous and encrypted communications

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

What are three security blind spots that must be addressed? (Choose Three)

A. Data

B. Applications

C. IT

D. Networks

E. Workloads

F. Email

Correct Answer: ABE

New Question 5:

What is one of the reasons that customers need a Visibility and Enforcement solution?

A. Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based

B. Businesses can\’t see or protect devices on their network

C. Organizations need the ability to block high-risk websites

D. Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

What are two solutions Cisco offers for email security? (Choose Two)

A. AMP for Email Security

B. Umbrella

C. Meraki

D. Tetration

E. Cloudlock

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 7:

How does AnyConnect provide highly secure access for select enterprise mobile apps?

A. Per application VPN

B. Application Visibility and Control

C. identity Service Engine

D. Secure Layer 2 Network Access

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Which two security areas are part of Cisco\’s endpoint solutions? (Choose two)

A. Identity and Access Control

B. URL Filtering

C. Remote VPN

D. Cloud App Security

E. Malware Protection

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 9:

What are two key advantages of Cisco\’s Security Solutions Portfolio? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Security provides flexible, simple, and integrated advanced threat detection, through a multilayered approach.

B. The Cisco Security Portfolio offers real-time access control and event monitoring to drive business outcomes.

C. The Cisco Security Portfolio provides security across the entire business environment.

D. Cisco Security provides direct, simple, and balanced detection by driving customer outcomes.

E. An effective security solution portfolio can help customers overcome ever-growing security challenges.

Correct Answer: AE

New Question 10:

What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)

A. More users

B. More IT professionals

C. More devices

D. More networks

E. More vulnerabilities

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 11:

What are two steps organizations must take to secure lot? (Choose Two)

A. remediate malfunctions

B. acquire subscription solutions

C. block contractors

D. update equipment

E. prevent blackouts

Correct Answer: AD

New Question 12:

What does Cisco provide via Firepower\’s simplified, consistent management?

A. Reduced complexity

B. Higher value

C. Improved speed to security

D. Reduced downtime

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

What percent of threats did ASA with FirePOWER block that earned AMP the highest security effectiveness scores in third-party testing?

A. 95.6%

B. 99.2%

C. 98.5%

D. 100%

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?

A. Secure Layer 2 Network Access

B. AnyConnect with AMP

C. Trusted Network Detection

D. Flexible AAA Options

Correct Answer: A

New Question 15:

What are the three main areas of the Cisco Security Portfolio? (Choose Three)

A. Roaming Security

B. VoiceandCollaboration

C. loT Security

D. Cloud Security

E. Advanced Threat

F. Firewalls

Correct Answer: CDE

…

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Share the latest updated Cisco 300-630 Dumps exam questions

Posted by admin on June 20, 2023 in 2022 updated 300-630 dumps pdf, CCNP Data Center, Cisco, Cisco 300-630 DCACIA exam, Cisco 300-630 Dumps exam questions, Cisco 300-630 Exam Dumps

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The latest Cisco 300-630 Dumps exam questions and answers are shared online:

Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Update time
15	CCNA, CCNP	2023.6.20

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a vSwitch policy in the existing Cisco ACI fabric. The requirement is for the Cisco ACI leaf to learn individual MAC addresses from the same physical port. Which vSwitch policy configuration mode must be enabled to meet this requirement?

A. MAC pinning

B. MAC binding

C. LACP passive

D. LACP active

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

An organization deploys active-active data centers and active-standby firewalls in each data center. Which action should be taken in a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod to maintain traffic symmetry through the firewalls?

A. Enable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

B. Disable service node Health Tracking

C. Enable Pod ID Aware Redirection

D. Disable Resilient Hashing

Correct Answer: B

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants to avoid connectivity problems for the endpoint EP1 when it reaches an external L3Out network through the gateway 10.2.2.254/24. Which two configurations must be implemented in BD-BD2? (Choose two.)

A. Disable unicast-routing

B. Enable IP data plane learning for the VRF

C. Disable ARP flooding

D. Enable ARP flooding

E. Enable unicast-routing

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 5:

In a Cisco ACI Multi-Site fabric, the Inter-Site BUM Traffic Allow option is enabled in a specific stretched bridge domain. What is used to forward BUM traffic to all endpoints in the same broadcast domain?

A. ingress replication on the spines in the source site

B. egress replication on the source leaf switches

C. egress replication on the destination leaf switches

D. ingress replication on the spines in the destination site

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://yves-louis.com/DCI/?p=1277

New Question 6:

An engineer must implement a full mesh Cisco ACI Multi-Site architecture. Which action must be taken on each spine to accomplish this goal?

A. Configure BGP-EVPN Router-ID

B. Configure Multi-Pod Data-Plane TEP

C. Configure Overlay Unicast TEP

D. Configure Overlay Multicast TEP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739609.html

New Question 7:

DRAG DROP

A leaf receives unicast traffic that is destined for an unknown source, and a spine proxy is enabled in the corresponding bridge domain. Drag and drop the Cisco ACI forwarding operations from the left into the order the operation occurs on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 8:

An engineer designs a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod solution that requires a pair of active-standby firewalls in different pods for external connectivity. How should the firewalls be implemented?

A. PBR for routed firewalls

B. separate L3Out peerings for routed firewalls

C. routed firewall for the default gateway

D. transparent firewalls

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739571.html

New Question 9:

A customer is deploying a new application across two ACI pods that is sensitive to latency and jitter. The application sets the DSCP values of packets to AF31 and CS6, respectively. Which configuration changes must be made on the APIC to support the new application and prevent packets from being delayed or dropped between pods?

A. disable the DSCP translation policy

B. align the ACI QoS levels and IPN QoS policies

C. disable DSCP mapping on the IPN devices

D. align the custom QoS policy on the EPG site in the customer tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKACI-2210.pdf

New Question 10:

An engineer created a Cisco ACI environment in which multiple tenants reuse the same contract. The requirement is to prevent inter-tenant communication. Which action meets this requirement?

A. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to VRF and export to other tenants

B. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to the Tenant

C. Create the contract in the user tenant with the scope set to Global and export to other tenants

D. Create the contract in the common tenant with the scope set to Global

Correct Answer: B

New Question 11:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 12:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

New Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the tenant implementation designs from the left onto the outcomes of the design when a greenfield Cisco ACI fabric is deployed on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must have communication between EPG1 in VRF1 and External EPG in VRF2. Which three actions should be taken for the defined subnets in the L3Out External EPG to accomplish this goal? (Choose three.)

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

An engineer deploys a Cisco ACI Multi-Site Orchestrator for the first time. Drag and drop the actions from the left into the steps on the right to add a site and deploy new Cisco ACI objects to the fabric. Not all actions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

Number of exam questions	Update time	Exam name	More related
15	Sep 14, 2022	Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure – Advanced (DCACIA) (300-630)	Cisco CCNP Exam Dumps (PDF+VCE)

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. How is the ARP request from VM1 forwarded when VM2 is not learned in the Cisco ACI fabric?

A. Leaf 101 forwards the ARP request to one of the proxy VTEP spines.

B. POD1 spine responds to the ARP request after the POD1 COOP is updated with the VM2 location.

C. Leaf 101 encapsulates the ARP request into a multicast packet that is destined to 225.0.37.192.

D. Leaf 101 switch consumes the ARP reply of VM2 to update the local endpoint table.

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?

A. ECMP

B. TCP optimization

C. disabled fragmentation

D. jumbo frames

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtual-extensible-lan-and-ethernet-virt.html

Question 3:

Which two actions are the Cisco best practices to configure NIC teaming load balancing for Cisco UCS B-Series blades that are connected to the Cisco ACI leaf switches? (Choose two.)

A. Create vPC+

B. Enable LACP active mode

C. Create PAgP

D. Create vPC

E. Enable MAC pinning

Correct Answer: BE

Question 4:

An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?

A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control

C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode

D. Disable Remote EP Learn

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn

B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check

C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning

D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

Question 6:

What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?

A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.

C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.

D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance mutli-destination traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. Which three actions should be taken to implement the vPC in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)

A. Select a common vPC interface policy group

B. Select individual interface profiles

C. Select common interface profiles

D. Select individual switch profiles

E. Select common switch profiles

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?

A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP

B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic

C. contract with no filter

D. permit-all contract filter

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibits. Which subject must be configured for the All_noSSH contract to allow all IP traffic except SSH between the two EPGs?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010.html

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?

A. global

B. VRF

C. application

D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of flags in the Cisco ACI contract allows a client in WebClient EPG to establish an HTTP connection toward a server in WebServer EPG?

A. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

B. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

C. Apply Both Direction DISABLED and Reverse Port Filter ENABLED

D. Apply Both Direction ENABLED and Reverse Port Filter DISABLED

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)

A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs

B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope

C. Change the contract scope to Tenant

D. Change the subject scope to VRF

E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted communication? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.

B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.

C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.

D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.

E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/basic-configuration/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x_chapter_0110.html

Question 14:

A. Enable Shared Route Control Subnet

B. Enable External Subnets for External EPG

C. Enable Export Route Control Subnet

D. Enable Shared Security Import Subnet

E. Enable Aggregate Shared Routes

F. Enable Import Route Control Subnet

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centric-infrastructure/guide-c07-743150.html

Question 15:

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active

B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning

C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning

D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active

E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive

F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

…

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CCNA 200-301 dumps the latest effective exam solution

Posted by admin on June 8, 2023 in 200-301, 200-301 dumps, 200-301 dumps exam questions, 200-301 dumps pdf, 200-301 dumps vce, 200-301 exam practice, 200-301 exam questions, 200-301 exam solution, 200-301 online practice, 200-301 pdf, CCNA, Cisco

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From	Number of exam questions	Online Download	Associated certification
Lead4Pass	15	200-301 PDF	CCNA, CCNP

Question 1:

After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. deploy load balancers

B. configure additional vlans

C. configure multiple VRRP groups

D. deploy POE switches

E. configure additional security policies

Correct Answer: AE

Question 2:

A router received three destination prefixes: 10.0.0.0/8, 10.0.0.0/16, and 10.0.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0

o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

B. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/8 [110/5] via 192.168.1.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet0

C. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

D. Gateway of last resort is 172.16.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

o E2 10.0.0.0/16[110/5] via 192.168.2.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet1

o E2 10.0.0.0/24[110/5] via 192.168.3.1, 0:01:00, Ethernet2

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A. to speed up convergence

B. to reduce routing overhead

C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth

E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 4:

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)

A. Telnet

B. SSH

C. HTTP

D. HTTPS

E. TFTP

Correct Answer: AC

Question 5:

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A. LC to SC

B. SC to SC

C. LC to LC

D. SC to ST

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)

A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.

B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

Correct Answer: BD

The reported distance (or advertised distance) is the cost from the neighbor to the destination.

It is calculated from the router advertising the route to the network. For example in the topology below, suppose routers A and B are exchanging their routing tables for the first time.

Router B says “Hey, the best metric (cost) from me to IOWA is 50 and the metric from you to IOWA is 90” and advertises it to router A.

Router A considers the first metric (50) as the Advertised distance. The second metric (90), which is from NEVADA to IOWA (through IDAHO), is called the Feasible distance.

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 6

The reported distance is calculated in the same way as calculating the metric. By default (K1 = 1, K2 = 0, K3 = 1, K4 = 0, K5 = 0), the metric is calculated as follows:

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 6-1

A feasible successor is a backup route. To be a feasible successor, the route must have an Advertised distance (AD) less than the Feasible distance (FD) of the current successor route.

Feasible distance (FD): The sum of the AD plus the cost between the local router and the next-hop router. The router must calculate the FD of all paths to choose the best path to put into the routing table.

Note: Although the new CCNA exam does not have an EIGRP topic you should learn the basic knowledge of this routing protocol.

Question 7:

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

A. IP

B. RTP

C. TCP

D. UDP

E. ARP

Correct Answer: CD

Question 8:

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

B. configuring a password for the console port

C. backing up Syslogs at a remote location

D. configuring enable passwords on network devices

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 9-1

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A. OpenFlow

B. Java

C. REST

D. XML

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 11

A. 192.168.0.7

B. 192.168.0.4

C. 192.168.0.40

D. 192.168.3.5

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?

A. backward compatibility with WPA and WPA2

B. safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

C. increased security and requirement of a complex configuration

D. optional Protected Management Frame negotiation

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

A. Null0

B. VIan58

C. Vlan60

D. VIan59

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Latest ccna 200-301 dumps exam questions 14

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

A. 255.255.255.240

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.248.

D. 255.255.255.248

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Which protocol does an access point used to draw power from a connected switch?

A. Internet Group Management Protocol

B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C. Cisco Discovery Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C

…

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Cisco CCNP Enterprise Core Exam Solution | Lead4Pass 350-401 dumps

Posted by admin on May 25, 2023 in 350-401 dumps, 350-401 dumps pdf, 350-401 dumps vce, 350-401 ENCOR Exam, 350-401 Exam, 350-401 exam Methods, 350-401 exam practice, 350-401 exam questions, 350-401 online practice, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

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From	Number of exam questions	Last updated	View answer
Lead4Pass	15	350-401 dumps	GO

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures the BGP adjacency between R1 and R2, however, it fails to establish Which action resolves the issue?

A. Change the network statement on R1 to 172.16 10.0

B. Change the remote-as number to 192 168.100.11.

C. Enable synchronization on R1 and R2

D. Change the remote-as number on R1 to 6500.

Verify answer

The EBGP neighbor for R1 is in the AS 6500, and not the same AS 5500

Question 2:

Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

A. vBond

B. vEdge

C. vSmart

D. vManange

Verify answer

The primary components for the Cisco SD-WAN solution consist of the vManage network management system (management plane), the vSmart controller (control plane), the vBond orchestrator (orchestration plane), and the vEdge router (data plane).

vManage -This centralized network management system provides a GUI interface to easily monitor, configure, and maintain all Cisco SD-WAN devices and links in the underlay and overlay network.

vSmart controller -This software-based component is responsible for the centralized control plane of the SD-WAN network. It establishes a secure connection to each vEdge router and distributes routes and policy information via the Overlay Management Protocol (OMP), acting as a route reflector. It also orchestrates the secure data plane connectivity between the vEdge routers by distributing crypto key information, allowing for a very scalable, IKE-less architecture.

vBond orchestrator -This software-based component performs the initial authentication of vEdge devices and orchestrates vSmart and vEdge connectivity. It also has an important role in enabling the communication of devices that sit behind Network Address Translation (NAT).

vEdge router -This device, available as either a hardware appliance or software-based router, sits at a physical site or in the cloud and provides secure data plane connectivity among the sites over one or more WAN transports. It is responsible for traffic forwarding, security, encryption, Quality of Service (QoS), routing protocols such as Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and more.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf

Question 3:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from diet 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 4:

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows:

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?

A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205

B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205

C. configure dns-server 172.16.50.5

D. configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

Verify answer

172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type + Length + Value. The type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses times

4 in hex. Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2 * 4 = 8 =

0x08. The IP addresses translate to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”

Reference: Click

Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).

Question 5:

In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain?

A. EIRP

B. dBi

C. RSSI

D. SNR

Verify answer

Once you know the complete combination of the transmitter power level, the length of cable, and the antenna gain, you can figure out the actual power level that will be radiated from the antenna. This is known as the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP), measured in dBm. EIRP is a very important parameter because it is regulated by governmental agencies in most countries. In those cases, a system cannot radiate signals higher than a maximum allowable EIRP. To find the EIRP of a system, simply add the transmitter power level to the antenna gain and subtract the cable loss.

Question 6:

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Verify answer

Question 7:

If the AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW. what is the power difference in dBm?

A. 6 dBm

B. 14 dBm

C. 17 dBm

D. 20 dBm

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/23231-powervalues-23231.html

Question 8:

A network engineer wants to configure console access to a router without using AAA so that the privileged exec mode is entered directly after a user provides the correct login credentials. Which action achieves this goal?

A. Configure login authentication privileged on line con 0.

B. Configure a local username with privilege level 15.

C. Configure privilege level 15 on line con 0.

D. Configure a RADIUS or TACACS+ server and use it to send the privilege level.

Verify answer

Question 9:

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A. WPA2 Personal

B. WPA3 Enterprise

C. WPA3 Personal

D. WPA2 Enterprise

Verify answer

WPA3-Personal provides the following key advantages:

•

Creates a shared secret that is different for each SAE authentication.

•

Protects against brute force “dictionary” attacks and passive attacks.

•

Provides forward secrecy. <–Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/catalyst-9100ax-access-points/wpa3-dep-guide-og.pdf

WPA3 Personal provides forward secrecy.

Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/wpa3-bringing-robust-security-for-wi-fi-networks

Question 10:

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor

B. broadcasting on the local subnet

C. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain

D. DHCP Option 43

E. querying other APs

Verify answer

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/119286-lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html#backinfo

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

A GRE tunnel has been created between HO and BR routers. What is the tunnel IP on the HQ router?

A. 10.111.111.1

B. 10.111.111.2

C. 209.165.202.130

D. 209.165.202.134

Verify answer

In the above output, the IP address of “209.165.202.130” is the tunnel source IP while the IP 10.111.1.1 is the tunnel IP address.

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.

B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.

C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.

D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

Verify answer

TCKOON is right the image is missing the channel-group 1 mode active statement but if you google it you will find the right picture.

Question 13:

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

A. egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B. ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C. egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D. ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

Verify answer

During operation, an Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) sends periodic Map-Register messages to all its configured map servers.

Question 14:

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A. IPsec

B. Basic Auth

C. GRE

D. OAuth 2.0

Verify answer

Question 15:

An engineer must configure a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address to the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an ethernet interface. Which additional configuration must be made on the tunnel interface?

A. (config-if)#tunnel destination

B. (config-if)#keepalive

C. (config-if)#ip mtu

D. (config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss

Verify answer

A GRE interface definition includes:

+ An IPv4 address on the tunnel + A tunnel source + A tunnel destination

Below is an example of how to configure a basic GRE tunnel:

interface Tunnel 0 IP address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source fa0/0 tunnel destination 172.16.0.2

In this case the “IPv4 address on the tunnel” is 10.10.10.1/24 and “sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface” is the command “tunnel source fa0/0”. Therefore it only needs a tunnel destination, which is 172.16.0.2.

Note: A multiple GRE (mGRE) interface does not require a tunnel destination address.

…

Verify answer

Number

Answers

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Cisco CCNP Security Core Exam Solution | Lead4Pass 350-701 dumps

Posted by admin on April 18, 2023 in 350-701, 350-701 dumps, 350-701 dumps 2023, 350-701 exam materials, 350-701 exam practice, 350-701 exam questions, 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR), 350-701 pdf, Cisco, Cisco 350-701, cisco 350-701 dumps, cisco 350-701 pdf, cisco 350-701 practice test, cisco 350-701 study guide, Cisco CCNP, implementing and operating cisco security core technologies (scor 350-701) pdf

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From	Type	Answers	Last updated
Lead4Pass	Free	View	350-701 dumps

Question 1:

A user has a device in the network that is receiving too many connection requests from multiple machines.

Which type of attack is the device undergoing?

A. phishing

B. slow loris

C. pharming

D. SYN flood

Question 2:

An administrator is configuring N IP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname

Question 3:

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

A. Cisco FTD

B. Cisco AnyConnect

C. Cisco CTA

D. Cisco ASA

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cognitive- threat-analytics/at-a-glance-c45-736555.pdf

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

A. imports requests

B. HTTP authorization

C. HTTP authentication

D. plays dent ID

Question 5:

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

A. Mail Submission Agent

B. Mail Transfer Agent

C. Mail Delivery Agent

D. Mail User Agent

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/SBA/February2013/Cisco_SBA_BN_ EmailSecurityUsingCiscoESADeploymentGuide-Feb2013.pdf

Question 6:

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

A. HTTPS file upload site

B. Microsoft Windows network shares

C. SQL database injections

D. encrypted SMTP

Question 7:

What is a description of micro-segmentation?

A. Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B. Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C. Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D. Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

Question 8:

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 9:

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

A. transparent user identification

B. SOCKS proxy services

C. web usage controls

D. user session restrictions

Question 10:

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A. intent-based APIs

B. automation adapters

C. domain integration

D. application adapters

Question 11:

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

A. Malware installation

B. Command-and-control communication

C. Network footprinting

D. Data exfiltration

Reference: https://www.netsurion.com/articles/5-types-of-dns-attacks-and-how-to-detect-them

Question 12:

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. virus

B. NTP amplification

C. ping of death

D. HTTP flood

Question 13:

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into DNAC with the native API?

A. lastSyncTime and paid

B. POST and name

C. userSudiSerialNos and devicelnfo

D. GET and serialNumber

To add a device to Cisco DNA Center with the native API, the API method used is POST which creates a new resource. One of the required attributes to add a device is the “name” attribute, which is used to specify the name of the device being added. The device name should be unique and it\’s used to identify the device within the Cisco DNA Center platform.

A GET request is used to retrieve information from a resource. “SerialNumber” and “userSudiSerialNos” are attributes used to identify a device but they are not required to add a device to Cisco DNA Center, they are needed to retrieve specific device information. “lastSyncTime” is an attribute used to indicate when the device last synced with Cisco DNA Center, it\’s not required to add a device. “pid” is an attribute used to identify a device\’s product ID, and it\’s not required to add a device.

Question 14:

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A. flow-export event-type

B. policy-map

C. access-list

D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E. access-group

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

…

Verify answer:

Questions:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

IMAGE

Summarize:

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Lead4Pass 350-501 dumps Latest Update for the 2023 Certification Exam

Posted by admin on March 2, 2023 in 350-501, 350-501 certification exam, 350-501 dumps, 350-501 dumps 2023, 350-501 exam dumps, 350-501 exam questions, 350-501 practice test, Cisco, Cisco CCNP

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Cisco 350-501 certification practice questions shared from Lead4Pass

Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code
Free	15	Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)	350-501

Question 1:

What are two features of stateful NAT64? (Choose two.)

A. It uses address overloading.

B. It provides 1:N translations, so it supports an unlimited number of endpoints.

C. It requires IPv4-translatable IPv6 address assignments.

D. It requires the IPv6 hosts to use either DHCPv6-based address assignments or manual address assignments.

E. It provides 1:1 translation, so it supports a limited number of endpoints.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/xe-16/nat-xe-16-book/iadnat-stateful-nat64.html

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 2

Routers P4 and P5 receive the 0.0.0.0/0 route from the ISP via eBGP peering. P4 is the primary Internet gateway router, and P5 is its backup. P5 is already advertising a default route into the OSPF domain. Which configuration must be applied to P4 so that it advertises a default route into OSPF and becomes the primary Internet gateway for the network?

A. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 2end

B. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate metric 40 metric-type 1end

C. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastredistribute bgp 65500 metric 40 metric-type 1end

D. configure terminalrouter ospfv3 100address-family ipv4 unicastdefault-information originate always metric 40 metric-type 1end

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

Which OS uses a distributed subsystem architecture?

A. IOS XE

B. IOS

C. IOS XR

D. CatOS

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 4

An inter-AS VPN between ISP-A and ISP-B is being deployed to support end-to-end connectivity for CE-1 and CE-2. For scalability reasons, the ASBR routers cannot exchange VPN routes for CE-1 and CE-2.

Which two configurations are needed to support this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. one VRF on the ASBRs for each CE

B. send-labels on the ASBRs

C. address-family VPNv4 on the ASBRs

D. ebgp-multihop between the PEs

E. ebgp-multihop between the ASBRs

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 5

Router R1 is reporting that its BGP neighbor adjacency to router R2 is down, but its state is Active as shown. Which configuration must be applied to routers R1 and R2 to fix the problem?

A. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.11 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 remote-as 5400

neighbor 11.11.11.12 update-source Loopback0

B. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

C. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

D. R1

router bgp 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 5400

neighbor 1.1.1.1 update-source Loopback0

router bgp 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 5400

neighbor 2.2.2.2 update-source Loopback0

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An engineer needs to implement the QOS mechanism on the customer\’s network as some applications going over the internet are slower than others.

Which two actions must the engineer perform when implementing traffic shaping on the network in order to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Configure a queue with sufficient memory to buffer excess packets.

B. Configure the token values in bytes.

C. Implement packet remarking for excess traffic.

D. Implement a scheduling function to handle delayed packets.

E. Configure a threshold over which excess packets are discarded.

Correct Answer: AD

Question 7:

An engineer must apply an 802.1ad-compliant configuration to a new switchport with these requirements:

The switchport must tag all trame when it enters the port

The switchport Is expected to provide the same level of service to traffic from any customer VLAN

Which configuration must the engineer use?

A. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qencapsulation ISLbridge-domain 12

B. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni c-portservice instance 12 encapsulation dot1qrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

C. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad uni s-portservice instance 12 encapsulation defaultrewrite ingress tag push dot1ad 21 symmetricbridge-domain 12

D. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1ethernet dot1ad nni service instance 12 encapsulation dot1adbridge-domain 12

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/cether/configuration/xe-3s/asr903/16-12-1/b-ce-xe-16-12-asr900/m_ce_802_1ad_900.html

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 8

An administrator working for a large ISP must connect its two POP sites to provide internet connectivity to its customers. Which configuration must the administrator perform to establish an iBGP session between routers PE1 on POP site 1 and PE2 on POP site 2?

A. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#no neighbor 172.18.10.1 shutdown PE2(config-router)#end

B. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#no neighbor 172.19.10.10 shutdown PE1(config-router)#end

C. PE1#configure terminal PE1(config)#router bgp 65111 PE1(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE1(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.19.10.10 activate PE1(config-router-af)#end

D. PE2#configure terminal PE2(config)#router bgp 65111 PE2(config-router)#address-family ipv4 unicast PE2(config-router-af)#neighbor 172.18.10.1 activate PE2(config-router-af)#end

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

In a service provider network, a NOC engineer identifies an interface that flaps continuously. This interface connects to an EBGP peer. Which feature can reduce this instability in the service provider network?

A. Non-Stop Forwarding

B. BGP PIC

C. IGP Prefix Prioritization

D. IP Event Dampening

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 350-501 certification practice questions 10

A large organization is merging the network assets of a recently acquired competitor with one of its own satellite offices in the same geographic area. The newly acquired network is running a different routing protocol than the company\’s primary network. As part of the merger, a network engineer implemented this route map. Which task must the engineer perform to complete the implementation?

A. Attach the route map to the redistribution command to manipulate the routes as they are shared.

B. Enable metric-style wide to allow the use of extended metrics from the protocols.

C. Configure an additional route map sequence to override the implicit deny at the end of the route map.

D. Attach the route map to an IS-IS network statement to advertise the routes learned on this interface to IS-IS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

After a series of unexpected device failures on the network, a Cisco engineer is deploying NSF on the network devices so that packets continue to be forwarded during switchovers. The network devices reside in the same building, but they are physically separated into two different data centers. Which task must the engineer perform as part of the deployment?

A. Implement an L2VPN with the failover peer to share state information between the active and standby devices.

B. Implement OSPF to maintain the link-state database during failover.

C. Implement VRFs and specify the forwarding instances that must remain active during failover.

D. Implement Cisco Express Forwarding to provide forwarding during failover.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

FRR is configured on a network. What occurs when the headend router on the path is alerted to a link failure over IGP?

A. LSP attempts fast switching on the backup path until the primary path returns to the active state.

B. The headend router uses a signaled LSP to bypass the failure point.

C. A new backup tunnel is established past the PLR to pass through the protected nodes.

D. Backup tunnel is established and intersects with the primary tunnel at the headend.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

A router RP is configured to perform MPLS LDP graceful restart.

Which three steps are included when the RP sends an LDP initialization message to a neighbor to establish an LDP session? (Choose three.)

A. Learn from Neighbor (N) flag, set to 1

B. Recovery Time field

C. Type-9 LSA

D. Reconnect Timeout field

E. Graceful restart capability in OPEN message

F. Learn from Network (L) flag, set to 1

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_ha/configuration/xe-16-8/mp-ha-xe-16-8-book/nsf-sso-mpls-ldp-and-ldp-graceful-restart.html

Question 14:

A network engineer must enable the helper router to terminate the OSPF graceful restart process if it detects any changes in the LSA.

Which command enables this feature?

A. nsf ietf helper disable

B. nsf cisco helper disable

C. nsf ietf helper strict-lsa-checking

D. nsf cisco enforce global

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/ip_route/configuration/guide/tgrhelp.html

Question 15:

Which MPLS design attribute can you use to provide Internet access to a major customer through a separate dedicated VPN?

A. The Internet gateway router is connected as a PE router to the MPLS backbone.

B. The CE router supports VRF-Lite and the full BGP routing table.

C. The Internet gateway inserts the full Internet BGP routing table into the Internet access VPN.

D. The customer that needs the Internet access service is assigned to the same RTs as the Internet gateway.

Correct Answer: D

…

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